Yeshua/Yahweh vs Ehyeh

Anto9us said:

I couldn't get into this site for hours.

Someone must have pronounced God's name wrong.

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Me 2. I think they might have been hacked and it took a while for the IT guys to fix it.

aww, they might've just been working on the site for something. I'm really happy - I had just about written it off for the night

The following is from the site: bible-hebrew (.) com

"Reading the Ancient Hebrew scriptures was once much more confusing than it is today. This is because Ancient Hebrew text was not always written with vowel representation. Until around the time of King David and King Solomon, Biblical Hebrew was written without vowel representation, such that primarily only those who were specifically trained and familiar with the Ancient Hebrew texts could efficiently and accurately read them. As the Holy Scriptures began to become more widespread and widely available, this problem was recognized and attempts were made to introduce some ways to denote vowels in Ancient Hebrew writing."

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It is a FACT that both ancient Hebrew and ancient Egyptian were written without vowels, thus ANYTHING that could have possibly been written by Moses was subject to later "vowel interpretation" by the scribes.

The conventional dates of Solomon's reign are circa 970 to 931 BC., so we can safely say that at least 500 years had passed from Moses' age to Solomon's age, before vowels were even introduced into the written Hebrew language.

I repeat, "Ehyeh" (regardless of ANY vowel sound used) WAS one of MANY pronunciations for Ea, who was a well-known and very satanic pagan god. He was worshipped under one form of his name or another from Egypt to India. Every single nation within the ancient Near and Middle East worshipped him as one of their primary gods in entire pantheons of pagan gods.

Furthermore, as an OP poster insinuated above, I have NEVER said that it was Moses who plagiarized the Code of Hammurabi. I have repeatedly stated in this thread and others that I firmly believe parts of the Hammurabi laws could have only been inserted into the Book of Exodus AFTER the Jewish people were exiled to Babylon, and the Jewish scribes were introduced to the Babylonian written word, as well as their texts.

I don't think Moses had ever even heard of Hammurabi, much less was able to quote from Babylonian laws. Furthermore, I am absolutely positive that Yeshua's Father had utterly no respect for the laws of man, much less anything written by the Babylonians! The God I know and love would have NEVER quoted from man's laws and claimed them as his own!

Do I believe that 'somebody' plagiarized the Code of Hammurabi? Yep, I sure do! But it WASN'T Moses and it certainly WASN'T the God of our Christian Faith!

I do NOT believe Yeshua's Father was the "Father of confusion."

However, there certainly was a god who was FAMOUS for introducing confusion into the tongues of man. He was called Ea ("Ehyeh") in most Semitic languages and was called 'Enki' (non-Semitic) in the Sumerian language, which is an uncontested fact that ALL scholars of ancient history agree upon. In the ancient Sumerian (Chaldean) language 'en' was their syllable for 'lord' and 'ki' was their word for 'earth'. This "lord of earth" was known by many different names, the most famous of which are:

Ea = Babylonian-Akkadian-Semitic ('ehyeh')
Enki = Sumerian
Ptah Tannin = Egyptian

All scholars of ancient history also agree that the biblical "land of Shinar" and "Chaldea" are references to Sumer which of course, is modern-day Iraq. The name was changed to 'Babylon' when the god Marduk (Merodach), who was Ea's son, became the head of the god pantheon of that nation.

I'm going to go find the Sumerian text that was given the title "The Nam-shub of Enki" so that you folks can see just WHO introduced "confusion" into the tongues of man. It's dated to c. 2250 BC, and every scholar I've ever read is in agreement that this text was the basis for part of the Book of Genesis, another book that has been attributed to Moses.

Hopefully it will make you all think twice about ever using "Ehyeh" as the name of God!

Stay tuned, I'll be back…

THE NAN-SHUB OF ENKI (Ea)

Once upon a time, there was no snake, there was no scorpion,
There was no hyena, there was no lion,
There was no wild dog, no wolf,
There was no fear, no terror,
Man had no rival.

In those days, the land Shubur-Hamazi,
Harmony-tongued Sumer, the great land of the me of princeship,
Uri, the land having all that is appropriate,
The land Martu, resting in security,
The whole universe, the people well cared for,
To Enlil in one tongue gave speech.

Then the lord defiant, the prince defiant, the king defiant,
Enki, the lord of abundance, whose commands are trustworthy,
The lord of wisdom, who scans the land,
The leader of the gods,
The lord of Eridu, endowed with wisdom,
Changed the speech in their mouths, put contention into it,
Into the speech of man that had been one.

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There are several passages in this text that appear to have been written to deceive.

There has never been a time during humankind's existence when there were no wild animals, nor has there ever been a time when all the people of the earth, much less the entire universe, ever worshipped Enlil or all spoke the same language.

The "contention" i.e. confusion and confounding of tongues occurred because Enki-Ea-Ptah Tannin devised a very cunning (or should I say "conning"?) plan whereby the same handful of pagan "gods" would be known by different names in every single nation or city/state throughout the Near and Middle East. In some nations each "god" was known by six or seven different names.

And you bet! It DEFINITELY created "confusion." The same practice eventually spread into Europe as well.

As far as I can ascertain, this "confusion of tongues" was evidently first developed in ancient India and as the Vedic people moved into the Middle East, the practice spread.

Ea or Enki can be traced back to India through the Rig Veda where he was known as Ayus, Aya or Aila. It's documented in the Rig.

Equally, a number of stories concerning "Enlil" can be traced back to Indra, who was worshiped as "god most high" by the ancient Aryans of India, the Indus Valley civilization, and it's colony in Iran (ancient Elam) during the Vedic Age.

I've gotta' run. It's another busy day…

Pluckiy Pilgrim said:

The following is from the site: bible-hebrew (.) com

It is a FACT that both ancient Hebrew and ancient Egyptian were written without vowels, thus ANYTHING that could have possibly been written by Moses was subject to later "vowel interpretation" by the scribes.

The conventional dates of Solomon's reign are circa 970 to 931 BC., so we can safely say that at least 500 years had passed from Moses' age to Solomon's age, before vowels were even introduced into the written Hebrew language.

I repeat, "Ehyeh" (regardless of ANY vowel sound used) WAS one of MANY pronunciations for Ea, [Nonsense! DA] who was a well-known and very satanic pagan god. He was worshipped under one form of his name or another from Egypt to India. Every single nation within the ancient Near and Middle East worshipped him as one of their primary gods in entire pantheons of pagan gods.

Furthermore, as an OP poster insinuated above, I have NEVER said that it was Moses who plagiarized the Code of Hammurabi. I have repeatedly stated in this thread and others that I firmly believe parts of the Hammurabi laws could have only been inserted into the Book of Exodus AFTER the Jewish people were exiled to Babylon, [Nonsense! DA] and the Jewish scribes were introduced to the Babylonian written word, as well as their texts.

I don't think Moses had ever even heard of Hammurabi, much less was able to quote from Babylonian laws. Furthermore, I am absolutely positive that Yeshua's Father had utterly no respect for the laws of man, much less anything written by the Babylonians! The God I know and love would have NEVER quoted from man's laws and claimed them as his own!

Do I believe that 'somebody' plagiarized the Code of Hammurabi? Yep, I sure do! But it WASN'T Moses and it certainly WASN'T the God of our Christian Faith!

I do NOT believe Yeshua's Father was the "Father of confusion."

However, there certainly was a god who was FAMOUS for introducing confusion into the tongues of man. He was called Ea ("Ehyeh") [Nonsense! All the pagan gods were idols! DA] in most Semitic languages and was called 'Enki' (non-Semitic) in the Sumerian language, which is an uncontested fact that ALL scholars of ancient history agree upon. In the ancient Sumerian (Chaldean) language 'en' was their syllable for 'lord' and 'ki' was their word for 'earth'. This "lord of earth" was known by many different names, the most famous of which are:

Ea = Babylonian-Akkadian-Semitic ('ehyeh') [Nonsense! DA]
Enki = Sumerian
Ptah Tannin = Egyptian

All scholars of ancient history also agree that the biblical "land of Shinar" and "Chaldea" are references to Sumer which of course, is modern-day Iraq. The name was changed to 'Babylon' when the god Marduk (Merodach), who was Ea's son, became the head of the god pantheon of that nation.

I'm going to go find the Sumerian text that was given the title "The Nam-shub of Enki" so that you folks can see just WHO introduced "confusion" into the tongues of man. [Nonsense! DA] It's dated to c. 2250 BC, and every scholar I've ever read is in agreement that this text was the basis for part of the Book of Genesis, [Nonsense! DA] another book that has been attributed to Moses.

Hopefully it will make you all think twice about ever using "Ehyeh" as the name of God!

Stay tuned, I'll be back…

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You have not presented any credible, verifiable, historical evidence for any of your claims about the Bible. All your arguments assume that somebody, somewhere, sometime changed or added to the Holy Scriptures. Can you explain how this might have happened?

Were all of the priests and leaders corrupt and conspired to change/add to the Word of God? Was God not able to deal with whomever mades the changes and preserve His Word as He said in Isaiah 55:11? Did all the priests/leaders ignore the scripture which commanded that His Word not be changed. Deu 4:2, 12:32, Pro 30:5-6? If this did happen were all the hundreds of Israelites, who knew the Word of God, not able to recognize the corruptions? If they did recognize the corruptions, why did nobody say anything?

Or did one or a few makes the changes without the knowledge of the majority of priests/leaders. How could a few people change/add to the Word of God without the majority of the priests/leaders recognizing the corruptions?

If all this did happen why was there not one faithful follower of YHWH to oppose the changes(s)? Was God so powerless that when His Word was supposedly changed, either during or after the time of Moses, that He did nothing as He had in the past Why did it take 2000 years +/- for someone to find these corruptions?

"If all this did happen why was there not one faithful follower of YHWH to oppose the changes(s)? Was God so powerless that when His Word was supposedly changed, either during or after the time of Moses, that He did nothing as He had in the past Why did it take 2000 years +/- for someone to find these corruptions?"

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Of course there were faithful followers! There were great numbers of people who followed YHWH, but the Bible clearly points out that we cannot count the priesthood in those numbers.

"Then he said unto me, Hast thou seen this, O son of man? Turn thee yet again, and thou shalt see greater abominations than these.

And he brought me into the inner court of the Lords' house, and beheld at the door of the temple of the Lord, between the porch and the alter, there were about five and twenty men with their backs toward the temple of the Lord and their faces towards the east: and they worshipped the sun towards the east.

Then he said to me, hast thou seen this, O son of man? Is it a light thing in the house of Judah that they commit the abominations which they commit here? For they have filled the land with violence, and have returned to provoke me to anger and lo, they put the branch to their nose.

Therefore will I also deal in fury, mine eye shall not spare, neither will I have pity: and though they cry in mine ears with a loud voice, yet will I not hear them." Ez 8: 15-18

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If you think this is an isolated incident, and something that only happened in the past, you are very much mistaken. You will never hear a rabbi utter the name of YHWH. Instead they pray aloud in the name of "Adonai." The Hebrew dictionary tells us that it means "My Lord." But that is not exactly true.

After he retired, Sigmund Freud began an intense search into the roots of his Jewish faith and ultimately published a book titled Moses and Monotheism.

In it Freud hypothesized that Moses was not Jewish, but actually born into Ancient Egyptian nobility and was perhaps a follower of Akhenaten, an ancient Egyptian monotheist, or perhaps Akhenaten himself.

The Egyptian pharaoh, Akhenaten worshipped Aten, i.e. the sun disk/sun god, as a monotheistic deity and attempted to get the whole of Egypt to do likewise.

I do not agree with Freud's thesis as there are significant passages in the Old Testament that clearly show that Moses over and over again told his followers not to worship the sun.

Never-the-less, Freud made one statement that has ultimately proven to be true. He stated that when the name 'Adon' was translated from ancient Hebrew back into ancient Egyptian, it translated to 'Aten,' i.e. the monotheistic version of the Egyptian sun god.

When I first learned of this I thought that Freud must surely be wrong. So I went searching for the outcry that I fully expected to find from the knowledgeable linguists of ancient languages in the academic community. That outcry was not forthcoming.

Since then it has been proven that the name 'Adon' does indeed translate back into the Egyptian word 'Aten' which was also spelled variously as 'Aton.'

To this day, every Rabbi still prays in the name of Adonai. Ultimately that name does NOT mean "my Lord", it means "my Aten." We cannot presume that the Rabbinical system does not know this; all Hebrew people following Moses out of Egypt would have had a very astute understanding of the Egyptian language. Furthermore, there was a huge population of Jewish people living in Alexandria, and we may safely assume that even in that later age, the Hebrew priesthood was perfectly capable of translating the Egyptian language into the Hebrew tongue.

Unfortunately, the name "Adonai" does NOT signify an allegiance to Yahweh. The Hebrew priesthood appears to be STILL worshipping the sun god under the cloak of a Hebrew translation for a very, very Egyptian god name.

So, has anything really changed since the days of Ezekiel?

Atenism is the monotheistic worship of the sun god.

Where is the worship of Yahweh? Yahweh clearly defined sun god worship as an abomination.