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Most likely (and I can check into this) "hungered" is idiomatically covering his need of water as well. One of the definitions of the word hunger is "to desire with greatness" and therefore, can cover great thirst even though that sounds funny in English. In Greek, the word is peinaō (G3983) and one of the words used in Strong's is "famish" which the 1828 Webster's has as one of it's entries:Yes, At the beginning of temptations, when in the desert, does so. know why? Is it related to his divine temple-body, or do you see any other reason? I don't even know the various explanations given by the various Christian dénomination. But it all looks so fishy to me! Could you please assist me in my perplexity?
Thanks
OldWise Guys answer is correct... but let me just throw in, the Greek word underlying famish or whatever your French word is, can mean being deprived of either water or food. Now we know in this case it is food, but should it ever come up again, we know, it can be either.Hello Ken, thank you for your answer, who can't alas satisfy me, for I'm french, who reads his bible in french, and this nuance, with Webster's"famish" doesn't exist in my tongue where hunger(la faim, in french) is only related to food, not drink.I don't know if the translation is better in french or in english Anyway, don't bother any more: Oldwiseguy's answer gave me a precision that rules out this obviousness: Yes, in the desert, one can be more likely thirsty than famish or hungry, but the scripture doesn't say Jesus didn't drink, just that he fasted in Matthew or didn't eat in Luke (in my french bible, of course; I still have to get a KJV offered. Lol).
Based on these posts, it appears that Scripture does not say whether Jesus abstained from water or not. If he did abstain from water, it was God that made it unnecessary for him drink it as we normally need to. That's what he does for people these days (when it is He who told someone to fast with no food or water).
Jesus would survive without water just fine if that's what the Father wanted. He does things like that for people in present times.That Jesus was hungry after his sojourn indicates that God didn't relieve him of that craving. Normally fasting without either food or water is termed "afflicting your souls" (bodies) as a point of humility and contrition ( see Day of Atonement). Jesus needed neither as he always yielded to his father's will. This also indicates that Jesus was indeed 'fully' human so while he could survive without food for forty days he certainly couldn't survive without water.
Also abstaining from food but maintaining fluids allows the body complete rejuvenation often leading to surprising vitality and energy as well as profound spiritual clarity (been there, done that).
Jesus would survive without water just fine if that's what the Father wanted. He does things like that for people in present times.
People tend to stop being hungry after about 6 days, which isn't to say they're comfortable, although they can be at times. The fact that Jesus was hungry means IMO that God or Satan returned hunger to him for the test/temptation.
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