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In the Catholic translation of the Bible ( Douay Rheims) it reads in Luke 1:28 “ the angel said to her: Hail Mary full of grace the Lord is with thee.” Unanimously in all the other translations which are from the Greek, not the Latin. They instead say, “ Rejoice, highly favored one the Lord is with you, blessed are you among women.” .
My understanding is that a literal translation, is "Hail, Having-Been-Endowed-With-Grace".
This identifies the Mother of God as one whose very identity is to be endowed with grace, to be sinless, to be the woman who will conceive Jesus Christ, our God, by a spiritual union with God the Holy Spirit, her Spouse.
Fair enough. Show us where in Scripture "oral traditions" is said to define doctrine or ought to. I can't find it myself.The wild card that you have mentioned is Scripture and not something made up so I would suggest that you read Scripture
All the scripture is athoratative and the word of God. I believe that all of it is doctrine to be followed and adhered to. Not all Scripture is spelled out exactly what it means but when Paul tells us to listen to and use oral traditions. We can not pick and choose what we want to believe the Bible is dose not contradict it self in any way.Fair enough. Show us where in Scripture "oral traditions" is said to define doctrine or ought to. I can't find it myself.
The wild card that you have mentioned is Scripture and not something made up so I would suggest that you read Scripture
Then you would be wrong. Perhaps it would behoove you to do a little word study in Greek. This is a good first step - http://biblehub.com/greek/5463.htm
Fair enough. Show us where in Scripture "oral traditions" is said to define doctrine or ought to. I can't find it myself.
Ok, show me in Scripture, then, that Mary was sinless and was taken to.heaven and resides with The Father and The Son as the queen of the kingdom.
Show me and I will believe.
No, your wildcard is traditions of men, doctrines added to what Truth was already known. Traditions that make false assumptions that the catholic church chose to believe in spite of the lack of any Scriptural support.
Do you believe if we are under grace we are to be judged? Can you explain that?In the end ,what are we judged by,Scripture or tradition?
OKAll the scripture is athoratative and the word of God.
No, he doesn't. That's why I asked for specifics, so I could see what you had in mind.I believe that all of it is doctrine to be followed and adhered to. Not all Scripture is spelled out exactly what it means but when Paul tells us to listen to and use oral traditions.
a. Ignatius wrote in 108 AD describing the Apostolic Church as the Catholic Church. Ignatius was a student of John's and ordained by Peter. It is obvious from the context that he wrote to people who were already familiar with the term, thus we know that 'Catholic Church' was already widely and use and had been used for some time. Basically, the Church born on Pentecost came to be called the Catholic Church.The letters were already written before there was any such thing as a Catholic Church....
OK
No, he doesn't. That's why I asked for specifics, so I could see what you had in mind.
While I appreciate that you answered my post, we still need to see where any doctrines are said, in Scripture, to be revealed or decided by oral traditions...and what those doctrines are.
Do you believe if we are under grace we are to be judged? Can you explain that?
I don't come into a forum to read a half dozen articles pasted from other sites. Honestly, it's YOU I like talking to! If you can put things into your own words, I would love it. If you have maybe one site you find particularly inspiring, you can quote maybe a paragraph from it and a link. But please don't give me three pages of pasted stuff. Thanks.Was Mary Sinless?
by Dr. Ken Matto
He obviously didn't mean the Roman Catholic Church. Nearly everyone who isn't trying to make a sectarian out of Ignatius understands that the word was being used in its original sense to mean the authentic church, which was then undivided, as opposed to the Gnostic sects.a. Ignatius wrote in 108 AD describing the Apostolic Church as the Catholic Church.
Well there is Tim 2:2 and 3:14-15 also Tim 4:6-8 and 2Thess2:15 and Luke 10:16 then Roman's 10:- 17. I believe that when you read not just these passages but all of them in the full context of the books this for me it makes it clear the beginning of apostolic tradition.OK
No, he doesn't. That's why I asked for specifics, so I could see what you had in mind.
While I appreciate that you answered my post, we still need to see where any doctrines are said, in Scripture, to be revealed or decided by oral traditions...and what those doctrines are.
He obviously didn't mean the Roman Catholic Church. Nearly everyone who isn't trying to make a sectarian out of Ignatius understands that the word was being used in its original sense to mean the authentic church, which was then undivided, as opposed to the Gnostic sects.
He wasn't referring to any particular denomination of later times, including the many which use the word "Catholic" as part of their legal names.
Not a one of those speaks of "oral tradition," and none of them refers to any particular doctrine. How could we adhere to any doctrine, from tradition or elsewise, without knowing what it is?Well there is Tim 2:2 and 3:14-15 also Tim 4:6-8 and 2Thess2:15 and Luke 10:16 then Roman's 10:- 17. I believe that when you read not just these passages but all of them in the full context of the books this for me it makes it clear the beginning of apostolic tradition.
Not a one of those speaks of "oral tradition,"
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