Just curious what tribe do you think Mary was? Levite or Judean?
My view is Levite as she was cousin to Elizabeth wife of Zacarihas who was a levite priest. By law to be a priest in service to temple he had to be married to a Levite woman, therefore to be her cousin she was a Levite.
Union of Levite (Mary)with David (Judah) - Jesus was both king and priest.
Shalom
Mark
When Eve tasted the forbidden fruit, it had no effect. She went right on just as naked as before without the slightest feelings of shame. It wasn't till Adam tasted the fruit that she obtained a sense of decency. Prior to that, had someone walked up and said; "Hey you; put some clothes on, you're exposed!" she would've stared at them as if they were a man gone mad.
Eve was born before Adam tasted the fruit; so he could not, nor did he, give her a sense of decency by means of procreation, nor by means of his body parts that God used to construct her.
Since Eve didn't obtain a sense of decency from the chemistry of the fruit, nor via procreation by means of Adam's body parts; then whence?
We're left with two alternatives: either God did it or the Serpent did it. My money is on the Serpent, a.k.a. the Devil (Rev 20:2)
He has the power of death (John 8:44, Heb 2:14) and is able to tamper with the human body and the human mind, e.g. Luke 13:16, Mark 5:1-5, and Eph 2:2.
The Serpent was apparently all set and ready to wield the power of death the moment that Adam crossed the line and ate that fruit. It amazes me how quickly it set in. As soon as Adam tasted the fruit, they both immediately set to work with the fig leaves. (Serpent is an appropriate name for the Devil seeing as how they are typically portrayed in scripture as poisonous snakes whose bite is fatal; e.g. John 8:44)
FAQ: Why wasn't Eve effected by the Serpent's power of death when she tasted the forbidden fruit?
A: It was apparently God's decision that sin and death come into the world via a man's actions just as life and righteousness would later be offered to the world via a man's actions. (Rom 5:12-21)
FAQ: When does the Serpent do his deadly work on people. . . in the womb or out of the womb?
A: Adam and Eve demonstrate that it can be done on adults, but I'm guessing that for most of us it's in the womb. (Ps 51:5)
In conclusion: even if Joseph had been baby Jesus' end-game biological father, the child wouldn't have necessarily been born with the so-called fallen nature because it's not passed on by one's biological father nor one's biological mother. It's obtained from humanity's other father; the Serpent-- ergo: protecting baby Jesus from the so-called fallen nature was just a simple matter of keeping the Devil's paws off him.
● John 14:30 . . He has no hold on me
_
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FAQ: Why was Joseph left out of Jesus' conception? Why couldn't he have been Jesus' biological father?
A: There's a few theories going around out there we might consider.
1• Men are filthy, unsanitary beasts. It's unthinkable that God would permit them to contaminate, and thus violate, the womb that was to bear the Holy Son of God.
» Women's bodies are made of material taken from a man's body (Gen 2:21-23). Mr.Job nailed it when he remarked: Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? Not one (Job 14:4). You see; women aren't from Venus after all; they're actually from Mars, same as men.
2• It was a measure to prevent the so-called fallen nature from infecting Jesus; which is believed inherited from a child's biological father.
» Well; whence did Eve get it? She was constructed of material taken from Adam's body; but he tasted the fruit after she was born, so it was too late for him to pass the fallen nature on to her via procreation.
3• Joseph was left out of Jesus' conception in order to protect him from the curse upon king Jeconiah's royal posterity (Jer 22:29-30, Matt 1:11).
» That's a very popular theory among quite a few Protestants. However; according to the language and grammar of the curse; its duration was limited to an era when the land of Israel was divided into two kingdoms-- Judah in the south and Samaria in the north --which came to an end when Nebuchadnezzar crushed the whole country and led first Samaria, and then later Judah, off to Babylonian slavery. When Christ takes the reins, the land of Israel will be unified, i.e. it will no longer be Judah in the south and Samaria in the north.
And besides, Jeconiah's royal line and the curse were inseparable. Had the curse been established in perpetuity, then when Jesus was placed in Jeconiah's royal line via his adoption to Joseph, he would've inherited the curse right along with the line; virgin conceived or not would've made no difference.
4• Another theory, which seems to me the most sensible, is that it was simply God's wishes that Jesus be not only Adam's progeny, but also His own, viz: Son of Man and Son of God; consistent with the angel's announcement. (Luke 1:32-35)
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Just curious what tribe do you think Mary was? Levite or Judean?
My view is Levite as she was cousin to Elizabeth wife of Zacarihas who was a levite priest. By law to be a priest in service to temple he had to be married to a Levite woman, therefore to be her cousin she was a Levite.
Union of Levite (Mary)with David (Judah) - Jesus was both king and priest.
Shalom
Mark
Mary was of Judah. (OT--marry within your tribe). Jesus was of Judah (Hebrews).
The priest reference refers to Melchizedek, not Levi.
When Eve tasted the forbidden fruit, it had no effect. She went right on just as naked as before without the slightest feelings of shame. It wasn't till Adam tasted the fruit that she obtained a sense of decency. Prior to that, had someone walked up and said; "Hey you; put some clothes on, you're exposed!" she would've stared at them as if they were a man gone mad.
Eve was born before Adam tasted the fruit; so he could not, nor did he, give her a sense of decency by means of procreation, nor by means of his body parts that God used to construct her.
Since Eve didn't obtain a sense of decency from the chemistry of the fruit, nor via procreation by means of Adam's body parts; then whence?
We're left with two alternatives: either God did it or the Serpent did it. My money is on the Serpent, a.k.a. the Devil (Rev 20:2)
He has the power of death (John 8:44, Heb 2:14) and is able to tamper with the human body and the human mind, e.g. Luke 13:16, Mark 5:1-5, and Eph 2:2.
The Serpent was apparently all set and ready to wield the power of death the moment that Adam crossed the line and ate that fruit. It amazes me how quickly it set in. As soon as Adam tasted the fruit, they both immediately set to work with the fig leaves. (Serpent is an appropriate name for the Devil seeing as how they are typically portrayed in scripture as poisonous snakes whose bite is fatal; e.g. John 8:44)
FAQ: Why wasn't Eve effected by the Serpent's power of death when she tasted the forbidden fruit?
A: It was apparently God's decision that sin and death come into the world via a man's actions just as life and righteousness would later be offered to the world via a man's actions. (Rom 5:12-21)
FAQ: When does the Serpent do his deadly work on people. . . in the womb or out of the womb?
A: Adam and Eve demonstrate that it can be done on adults, but I'm guessing that for most of us it's in the womb. (Ps 51:5)
In conclusion: even if Joseph had been baby Jesus' end-game biological father, the child wouldn't have necessarily been born with the so-called fallen nature because it's not passed on by one's biological father nor one's biological mother. It's obtained from humanity's other father; the Serpent-- ergo: protecting baby Jesus from the so-called fallen nature was just a simple matter of keeping the Devil's paws off him.
● John 14:30 . . He has no hold on me
_
You might also want to consider that Adam was the "head" of the family. He was in fact the FEDERA: HEAD of humanity which made him the responsible one, not Ever.
No, Noah was the federal head of the human family, not Adam. Adam, by choosing to sin, rather than being deceived into it, lost his position as curator of Eden... and many people think the devil gained rulership of the world in that event. They may be right, since we see the prince of this world being judged by the sacrifice of the High Priest, Jesus... from the family of Moses, the first High Priest. Jesus is prophesied by the Father through Moses, to be the Prophet-Priest like unto Moses, of Moses' people... to Him belongs the obedience of the nations, and by His words (from the Father) will all the nations be judged, John 12:48.
Judah.Just curious what tribe do you think Mary was? Levite or Judean?
My view is Levite as she was cousin to Elizabeth wife of Zacarihas who was a levite priest. By law to be a priest in service to temple he had to be married to a Levite woman, therefore to be her cousin she was a Levite.
Union of Levite (Mary)with David (Judah) - Jesus was both king and priest.
Shalom
Mark
Definitely Judah.
Luke 3 does not give Mary's lineage. We know she is descended from Judah because she was betrothed to Joseph, who is a descendant of Judah. The Jews married withing their own tribes to ensure that no share of their inheritance was lost to another tribeSomething to consider in Mary’s lineage are that she was a descendant of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob which is seen in Lk. 3:34.
Lk. 3:33 says that she was specifically of the tribe of Judah. She was also a descendant of Boaz (verse 32) and David (verse 31). Significantly, Luke traces Mary’s lineage all the way back to Adam (verse 38) so.....not that it matters but I agree with you.
Luke 3 does not give Mary's lineage. We know she is descended from Judah because she was betrothed to Joseph, who is a descendant of Judah. The Jews married withing their own tribes to ensure that no share of their inheritance was lost to another tribe
For the wrong reasons.I was agreeing with you
For the wrong reasons.
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