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The contention that Peter held the primacy over the entire church and that his authority is passed on to the "bishop" of Rome continually is neither backed by scripture, early church fathers, or HISTORY...Rome is the BIG lie when it comes to the universal authority together with apostolic succession!
Wooweee - I wish I had said thatPresently there is demonstrated here that suggests it is backed by scripture. Are you going to challenge what has been suggested? I don’t see how simply stating that it is wrong demonstrates anything except your disbelief.
Jesus, himself citing ISA 22:2 after Peter has died, applies these words to himself. Odd, if, in fact, this refers not to the King, but to the King's "prime minister" in the person of the not yet existing bishop of Rome...Presently there is demonstrated here that suggests it is backed by scripture. Are you going to challenge what has been suggested? I don’t see how simply stating that it is wrong demonstrates anything except your disbelief.
Understand please that I get bored arguing against ridiculous parallels...Presently there is demonstrated here that suggests it is backed by scripture. Are you going to challenge what has been suggested? I dont see how simply stating that it is wrong demonstrates anything except your disbelief.
The contention that Peter held the primacy over the entire church and that his authority is passed on to the "bishop" of Rome continually is neither backed by scripture, early church fathers, or HISTORY...Rome is the BIG lie when it comes to the universal authority together with apostolic succession!
A better case could be made historically for Jerusalem and Antioch.
It's ridiculous people buy into the "known for all ages" propaganda.
Of course it is.That is, of course, a load of bald assertions and nonsense. You can't bind/lock or loose/unlock without keys. (Unless you want to entertain the possibility that Jesus gave the other apostles lockpicks.) Binding and loosing is not something separate from the keys, the desperate apologia of your church notwithstanding.
Wrong.I might have put it differently, but you have laid the matter out correctly.
1. If there is this primacy, it applies to Peter, not to 200+ other people living centuries after Christ.
2. Primacy does not mean rule...or infallibility...even though proponents of both of those speak as if establishing primacy automatically makes any role or power one can imagine into a reality.
3. There is no evidence whatsoever from the Apostolic Church showing that any bishop of Rome considered himself to be the possessor of this power, and
4. The Church Fathers are divided on the matter, with those coming the latest--400 or so years after Christ and some time after the bishops of Rome began claiming universal jurisdiction--the ones most likely to approve of the claims being made by the bishops of Rome in their own lifetimes.
Of course it is.
Binding and loosing is the ability to forgive sins.
This is a separate issue from the authority granted to the holder of the keys.
Neither does rejecting it make it false.Repeating that ad nauseam does not make it true, sorry.
It ain't a "fallacy" if the implication flows in both directions. As I have written before, the evangelist does not need to mention "keys" specifically a second time because one cannot bind and loose without them. Read that until it sinks in.I took liberty to do your homework for you. So then, one possesses the keys if and only if one can bind and loose. I see no contradictions to this in scripture. Though how are you going to affirm the consequent? We have the same problem. One can bind and loose if and only if one possesses the keys. Matthew 18:18 contradicts this, Jesus confers this authority without mention of the keys. Incidentally, the only way you have been able to interject the keys is via the logical fallacy of affirming the consequent.
Neither does rejecting it make it false.
Which FACT are you disputing?
I'll be glad to cure you of your ignorance.
Clearly, the power of the keys are separate from the power of binding and loosing.This is not difficult, so try to keep up, Chesterton redivivus. Keys lock (bind) and unlock (loose). The evangelist already introduced the symbol of the "keys" in Matthew 16:19 as well as their function, so he need not mention "keys" explicitly again in Matthew 18:18. Read that until it sinks in.
It ain't a "fallacy" if the implication flows in both directions. As I have written before, the evangelist does not need to mention "keys" specifically a second time because one cannot bind and loose without them. Read that until it sinks in.
Clearly, the power of the keys are separate from the power of binding and loosing.
The power of the keys was granted to a single person in both the old and new testament scriptures.
Your attempt to muddy the waters is quaint, but fruitless.
The difference is I am using what Matthew 18:18 says. You are using what you want Matthew 18:18 to say. This isnt a logical problem. It seems to be more related to your ability to read.
I'm not sure if you are illiterate, or a liar.That is, of course, false.
In Isaiah but not in Matthew.
That is especially amusing coming from a RC.
Understand please that I get bored arguing against ridiculous parallels...
the fact that the Lord Jesus cites this text of Himself post-resurrection clearly indicates that the attempted use of the passage(a use unknown, to my knowledge, in at least the first 1000 years of church history) stands against the New Testament's own understanding and teaching.
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