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You assumed "beating" is mandatory. No. It's optional.
If a slave master beats their slave, and they die on day 4 from this beating, are they punished????
Great, I'm a deist now.
According to logicians. I'm a huge fan of the 2nd Quinque viæ.
The irony is that the proof has been around for so long, that society simply tried to ignore it. . .or sweep it under the rug. But it didn't completely disappear. We're simply subjects of our secular public schooling. That doesn't mean it never existed! lol.
During the 18th century Age of Enlightenment, where did Hume or Kant ever refute any of the classical logical arguments for God's existence? <-- Don't forget that logic is math-based, therefore it constitutes proof.
Only direct citations with book names and quotes, please.
(and this isn't just limited to Hume or Kant. Any other philosopher OR SCIENTIST from the 18th, 19th, or 20th century is acceptable too.)
^ This includes Bertrand Russell. Don't think I'm trying to limit you to one or two individuals.
I don't really believe you're even a Deist.
The book says no, because you cannot predictably fix the situation to result in such an outcome.
Wow, I'm glad I ran into you. I guess Romans 1:18-22 IS true. If I deny God's existence, it's either because I'm stupid and/or evil.
I don't quote people too much, but since you are on a roll... Hitchens also stated that even if you were to prove deism, you would still have all your work ahead of you.
If a slave master beats their slave, and they die on day 4, does this [objective moral law giver] think that's a-okay?
No, you are reading too much into my question.
I already know the Biblical answer. I just want to read you say it
I already know the Biblical answer. I just want to read you say it
DETAILS MATTER, BUDDY!!!
So you can use it as a petty "gotcha" to imply that some evil genius Jew slave-master can plan ahead for that exact outcome? lol. No.
And if the slave doesn't die, it's an eye for an eye (he'll have to pay for every injury that led to the slave's critical condition).
In either case, I guarantee it's the last slave he'll ever own.
Nope, I just think you are using fancy lawyer tricks.
I trust you know what I'm driving at...
You still have not answered the very simple and direct question. Why is that?
No. Details really do matter. And thanks for the compliment.
You want to accuse "God" or "The Biblical text" of condoning murder, when it's more like manslaughter. That's the eisegetical presuppositon you've built it on. And you've lost track of it.
Because you're angling for a cheap "gotcha," and you hate when details get in the way?
Please answer the question. You are applying a response, but not answering my direct question.
I've provided a highly detailed response. In fact, the more I think about it, the more details I can add to it. So thank you! I appreciate the opportunity.
*white flag* Parlay on the field?
Can we settle on God being "okay" with manslaughter? In this case, Deut 19 cannot apply.
Hello?
No highly detailed response is necessary. Multiple requests and counting...
I acquire a slave. I have not converted him yet. He is also from, let's say... Russia. I whip him. 4 days later, he dies from infection. I did not mean to kill him. I did not realize he would die so easily. Is God a-okay with this?
There's nothing "highly detailed" about manslaughter.
Please answer the question:
I acquire a slave. I have not converted him yet. He is also from, let's say... Russia. I whip him. 4 days later, he dies from infection. I did not mean to kill him. I did not realize he would die so easily. Is God a-okay with this?
I will say "yes," if you admit that it's manslaughter.
DEAL, OR NO DEAL?
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