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That's very interesting. So how would I say "one of the sabbaths" in Greek?
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Google translate is very limited. It also doesn't translate idioms.
It's pretty obvious you don't know Greek and you are definitely not a qualified translator, yet here you are. What incredible hubris!
Google is using the information it has and it just has "one of the Sabbaths" so that's what it translates. Biblical Greek and modern Greek also have different rules so Google translate should not be considered an expert over actual bible translations, it can be used as a tool but not to prove anything.If that is the modern day understanding of these three words; can you explain why when I type μια των σαββατων. into Google Translate, it yields "one of the Saturdays?"
https://translate.google.com/?sl=auto&tl=en&text=μια των σαββατων&op=translate
This is a fact that the CLV seems to ignore. Since you can't see this or study it yourself means you don't understand Greek enough to be analysing it's words critically.
so its only the sources you find that are relevant right? are you an expert on Latin and German too that you can comment on it's grammar? They use different rules than English and words carry things like gender and case that English doesn't. We can't just superimpose English grammar over any language and act like it works, because it doesn't. You seem to love your logical fallacies terms, well the one you're playing is called an "Invincible ignorance fallacy" where you ignore all evidence to the contrary and only use sources that agree with your position.Jerome and the rest of the translators of the Vulgate 382 seemed to ignore this too. 1600 years later, you come along and tell us that's not what Greek meant back then. Martin Luther also translated this verse as "an der Sabbather einem;" but perhaps he too was not as educated as you. I'll have to beg that you please excuse us for our ignorance.
You certainly wouldn't use "μια" as it is the wrong gender for "Σάββατο"That's very interesting. So how would I say "one of the sabbaths" in Greek?
Do you know Latin and German? They use different rules than English and words carry things like gender and case that English doesn't. We can't just superimpose English grammar over any language and act like it works, because it doesn't. You seem to love your logical fallacies, well the one you're playing is called a "Invincible ignorance fallacy" where you ingore all evidence to the contrary and only use sources that agree with your position.
Do you know Latin and German? They use different rules than English and words carry things like gender and case that English doesn't.
Hark, may I ask your opinion. Which translation below is the correct translation of Mark 16:1-2.That's very interesting. So how would I say "one of the sabbaths" in Greek?
This isn't about winning a debate. I'm sorry if you see it that way. This is about truth. Pointing out your flawed logical arguments should be a learning experience for you, my friend.
"I'm right because I said so" isn't a valid argument.
I'm speaking of your assertion regarding the Road to Emmaus.
I've read that chapter twice now; and I don't see a reference to the day. I've asked you repeatedly to provide the verse that points out the day. See post #525.
I won't ask again.
your position is implicit and even if you don't hold to it personally this thread is acting as a vacuum where you have chosen to defend a certain position over another. harmonizing would not ignore the grammar of the greek but rather value it. the grammar says "one [dative feminine singular noun] of the sabbaths" you are free to search for a greek feminine noun that will fit this context. if you want to be more transparent with the translation some translations like the KJV put the word "day" in italics to indicate this word is not explicitly part of the original text but it's difficult to communicate greek grammar in translations without getting technical. you would have to use a footnote to communicate that "one" is pointing to a feminine noun not formally written but from context and other similar phrases we can responsibly infer this word is "day" as it is a feminine noun. (Sabbath is not a feminine noun so it's not Sabbath, "sabbaths" is also plural and "one" is always singular also "sabbaths" in the context is in the wrong case). the text reads:I haven't taken a position
Hark, may I ask your opinion. Which translation below is the correct translation of Mark 16:1-2.
Mark 16:1-2 (CLV)
And, for the elapsing of the sabbath, Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, buy spices, that, coming, they should be rubbing Him. And, very early in the morning on one of the sabbaths, they are coming to the tomb at the rising of the sun.
Mark 16:1-2 (KJV)
And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him. And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun.
your position is implicit and even if you don't hold to it personally this thread is acting as a vacuum where you have chosen to defend a certain position over another. harmonizing would not ignore the grammar of the greek but rather value it. the grammar says "one [dative feminine singular noun] of the sabbaths" you are free to search for a greek feminine noun that will fit this context. if you want to be more transparent with the translation some translations like the KJV put the word "day" in italics to indicate this word is not explicitly part of the original text but it's difficult to communicate greek grammar in translations without getting technical. you would have to use a footnote to communicate that "one" is pointing to a feminine noun not formally written but from context and other similar phrases we can responsibly infer this word is "day" as it is a feminine noun. (Sabbath is not a feminine noun so it's not Sabbath, "sabbaths" is also plural and "one" is always singular also "sabbaths" in the context is in the wrong case). the text reads:
μια των σαββατων
one [day] of-the sabbaths
but really it's:
μια-Adj-DFS [N-DFS] των-Art-GNP σαββατων-N-GNP
one [day-N-DFS] of-the sabbaths
if the meaning was the day of the sabbath it would use a dative neuter singluar form of "one" to agree with the "sabbath" (a neuter noun) and look like this
ενι των σαββατων
which would more litterally say
one [sabbath] of-the sabbaths
Completely objective and unbiased articleI've been studying the arguments that you put forth concerning the Greek. In my search, I stumbled across this article:
μια των σαββατων - Debunking the gender/case argument
You seem to be answering another question.The seven festivals do not necessarily occur on weekly Shabbat (seventh-day Sabbath) and are called by the name miqra ("called assembly") in Hebrew (Lev. 23). They are observed by Jews and a minority of Christians. Two of the shabbath (holy assemblies) occur in spring on the first and last day of the Feast of unleavened bread (Matstsah). One occurs in the summer, this is the Feast of Weeks (Shavuot). And four occur in the fall in the seventh month. Yom Teru'ah (Feast of Trumpets) on the first day of the seventh month; the second is Yom Kippur (Day of Atonement); and two during the feast of Sukkoth (Feast of Tabernacles) on the first and last day. Sometimes the word shabbaton is extended to mean all seven festivals.[4]
High Sabbaths - Wikipedia
I've been studying the arguments that you put forth concerning the Greek. In my search, I stumbled across this article:
μια των σαββατων - Debunking the gender/case argument
My search started with three days and three nights. I don't just accept what I'm told at face value. I trust what Yahshua says over any explanation that would explain his words away.
The seven festivals do not necessarily occur on weekly Shabbat (seventh-day Sabbath) and are called by the name miqra ("called assembly") in Hebrew (Lev. 23). They are observed by Jews and a minority of Christians. Two of the shabbath (holy assemblies) occur in spring on the first and last day of the Feast of unleavened bread (Matstsah). One occurs in the summer, this is the Feast of Weeks (Shavuot). And four occur in the fall in the seventh month. Yom Teru'ah (Feast of Trumpets) on the first day of the seventh month; the second is Yom Kippur (Day of Atonement); and two during the feast of Sukkoth (Feast of Tabernacles) on the first and last day. Sometimes the word shabbaton is extended to mean all seven festivals.[4]
High Sabbaths - Wikipedia
Keep in mind though the application here (one of the Sabbaths) in the Greek and its application is to the holy convocation (no work) of Leviticus 23 (Feast of unleavened bread) that is why it is translated as sabbaton (no work rest; one of the sabbaton; High day/Sabbath). I understand and agree with your point though.Mikrayim do not always fall on a weekly Shabbat, but sometimes they do (as is the case we are discussing). The only moed that is specifically called a Shabbat in Torah is Yom Kippur.
this goes back to the Invincible ignorance fallacy. the article you posted has extreme bias as noted in its opening statements calling a traditional position synonymous with propagandists. This tells me the entire article is agenda-driven to expose the propagandists but not to determine what the Greek actually says. The author should lay everything on the table and not invoke any conspiracies but simply say regardless of where the chips fall he will look for a truthful and faithful understanding of the text. But that is not what he says and instead exposes a rather unsightly bias. Try finding a less biased position with someone with actual credentials.I've been studying the arguments that you put forth concerning the Greek. In my search, I stumbled across this article:
μια των σαββατων - Debunking the gender/case argument
My search started with three days and three nights. I don't just accept what I'm told at face value. I trust what Yahshua says over any explanation that would explain his words away.
This applies to you not me.
If God had wanted to designate 1st and last day of unleavened bread, Sabbaths, He would have done so.
But God did not designate 1st and 7th ULB as Sabbaths.
God specifically stated that preparing and cooking food was permitted on 1st/7th ULB.
Preparing/cooking of food is specifically prohibited on the Sabbath.
Thus nobody has the scriptural authority designate 1st/7th ULB as Sabbaths.
Numbers 15:32-35
32 While the Israelites were in the wilderness, a man was found gathering wood on the Sabbath day.
33 Those who found him gathering wood brought him to Moses and Aaron and the whole assembly,
34 and they kept him in custody, because it was not clear what should be done to him.
35 Then the LORD said to Moses, "The man must die. The whole assembly must stone him outside the camp."
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