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There is no record of any schism that would seperate the modern day Catholic Church from this "universal" church that Ignatius speaks of.
Papal infaliabilty/supremecy? I would say filoque, but the Creed was not written yet at this time.
These come to mind..
You seem confused by your own terminology. You use supremacy and primacy in this paragraph. Which do you want? No one is denying primacy. That is what all this confirms. I see no edicts, no universal pronouncements here either.If it lies with the Bishops Then you must deal with the Robber Council where the majority of bishops, against the approval of the Pope, denied the humanity of Christ. If there is no suprimacy of the Pope, then this Council was valid. If this Council was valid, then Jesus was not fully man. If Jesus was not fully man, then He could not have suffered and died for your sins. So the denial of the primacy of the Pope leads to the denial of the reality of the Cross.
Trento,
You seem confused by your own terminology. You use supremacy and primacy in this paragraph. Which do you want? No one is denying primacy. That is what all this confirms. I see no edicts, no universal pronouncements here either.
Why would one need to deal with a Council that was rejected? Many synods were overturned by the faithful. This council was no exception. Pope Leo I simply requested several other bishops along with both emporers, (east and west) to summon another council. This was eventually done and held at Chalcedon in 451. The Council took action on, including the statement from Leo and along with others were approved by the Council. Hardly an edict of the Pope. The findings were sent to him for his approval. One was the change of order from the other heirarchies of Constantinople, Antioch, Alexandria, and Jerusalem. Leo did not approve this one canon, but guess what, it went into effect anyway. Hardly an universal edict of jurisdiction. It was the Council that has the authority. It was put into effect in both the east and west by the Emporers, not the Pope. The very fact that a council is even called speaks against any kind of universal jurisdiction.
By the way, no council is valid until it has been approved by the faithful over time. At each succeeding Council the Canons, as was in this case were read and either approved or declared null. Check your history a little better. The Pope never decreed anything, never overrode a Council. The most he can do is to request, submit proposals and approve as an equal bishop along with all the rest present.
The denial of an earthly supreme universal ruler (a Pope) affirms that Christ is that Supreme Ruler even here on this earth.
The Church was most fortunate to have such a faithful bishop at this time.
Might note that those who ended on the opposite side, the Monophysites, became the Non-chalcedonians or Coptics. A group that differs from Orthodoxy only on this one issue and might soon be rejoined back into the One True Church.
The Filioque would not show a schism of a nature that would separate the modern Catholic Church from the same church that Ignatius of Antioch writes about. I do not see your reasoning here???
Or are you saying this Filioque in regards to the creed gives some credence to the infallibility of the Pope or the Supremacy of the Pope???
I guess I need you to be wordier.
How could it not show a schism, when there was a schism? Ignatius was an Antiochian Bishop, and Antioch at this point is not RC, it is Orthodox.
The filioque being added to the Creed by the Roman Pope against former Canons stating that the Creed could not be changed unless by another Council..has alot to do with what supremecy the Pope thinks he has...Ignatius would not have gone along with this..
Jesus made no individual priests, much less Pontiffs. The only priesthood is of the whole Christian community. Since there ARE no priests in the NT, there could be no ordination of priests. The idea of a priestly caste seperate from the laity is foreign to the NT.
Ignatius of Antioch is the 1st to make a clear distinction between bishop & elders, and as not existing yet in Rome. He rallys people to their bishop as a sign of church unity, not church authority, in 6 of his seven letters. Only when he writes to Rome does he omit any reference to a bishop. Given his urgency about the office, he wouldn't have done that if there were a Roman bishop. He doesn't refer to Peter or Paul in his letter to Rome, either. Surely he would've reffered to Peter as bishop, if he thought Peter held the office.
Ignatius' passion for the office was sparked by resistance to it, being unable to impose his authority in Antioch. Ignatius wrote his letters while traveling toward Rome to be executed. From the text of the letters themselves, it has been established that he had been arrested for civil unrest in the divided Christian community of Antioch, and was pleading for support from other bishops for help in reconciliation, which worked.
Ignatius is used to support the idea of an apostolic succession, but he contrasted himself with them, saying he did not have their powers (Trallians 3:3) & Romans (4:3).
It is oness of the community the bishop symbolizes, not hierarchical authority.
and, yes, you had a local council deposing a Bishop. What is the normal process, expecially when several in the east did the deed. He appealed to Rome, hopefully, and impartial participant, which it turned out. But the Council put into effect even the canon that Pope Leo disagreed with. Hardly acquiesence to a Universal Pope.These are bishops (and Eastern ones at that) speaking to the Bishop of Rome
He was deposed by the Council not Pope Leo. Leo sent a letter, explaining his view and reasonings but the practice of the Church also is that no one can be deposed by a single other bishop. One cannot be consecrated either except by at least three other bishops. Not quite universal jurisdiction like Rome has today. Nothing even remotely like it existed for the first 1000 years.Rather, by Pope Leo’s own authority (that is, the authority of Peter), Dioscorus was deposed
He made presbyters. Paul spends a lot of time explaining who they should be, and what functions they performed in the Church. They were the same as OT priests. The NT word was bishop or elder or prebyters, all were used interchangeably.Jesus made no individual priests, much less Pontiffs. The only priesthood is of the whole Christian community. Since there ARE no priests in the NT, there could be no ordination of priests. The idea of a priestly caste seperate from the laity is foreign to the NT.
Yes, but this does not address the priesthood, the corporate respresentative of both God and man in a corporate worship community. In fact, it is placed in a secondary status, as Ye also, can be priest as individuals.1Peter2:5: Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.
Cannot disagree with you on that one.Paul made a point of saying his work was not authorized by the church in Jerusalem, or The Twelve, or anyone but God(Gal1:1-20), lending even less credibility to the idea of anyone but Jesus being or representing, the head of His body, the church.
Just an historical note. Clement the I was the third bishop at Rome who died about 101AD. Ignatius died in or around 107 AD. It is on his way to Rome to his execution that he wrote to the Churches enroute.Ignatius of Antioch is the 1st to make a clear distinction between bishop & elders, and as not existing yet in Rome.
I find using scripture as a stand-alone guide for faith & practice is an excellent way to avoid accumulating props, costumes, and rituals that are foreign to scriptural principles.
He gave all authorty which was given Him by the Father to the disciples: John 20:22-23, John 16:12-15, Matt 28:18-20, Matt 16:19, 18:18.Show me where & how Jesus made presbyters, please.
I Tim 5:22, II Tim 1:6,Please show me where Timothy was ordained as a priest with a laying on of hands by apostles. I can't find it.
Gen 1:26-31. there is much more to it than just this, but it takes a treatise to explain it."Man was created to be prophet, priest, and king over the universe with God.'
I have problems w/"over the universe" part. Over himself & other humans I could swallow.
Its all in my original statement. Corporate means corporate, not individual.Believers cannot act alone? Give that some context, because in terms of other humans, I often act alone.
Unless you mean alone without The Holy Spirit?
Then why do you have churches, why do you have ministers if he has no function and you can operate totally of yourself. Defeats the whole meaning of Church, assembly, called out. Unity in the Body. We are just as much saved as a Body as we are individually. We as individuals can only be saved If IN Christ, In Christ means in His Church of which He is Head. I can understand your understanding. Protestants for the most part are becoming more private and individualistic in faith and practice.I am unfamiliar with the notion that a Prot minister represents anybody any more than we all are to be "ambassadors for Christ".
Difference of practices versus functions. Same thing as explained above. Again, you have eliminated the Body and the function of bishops, presbyters, laity, deacons, all four are necessary in any church governance.I am also ignorant of how OT worship is, or even should be "carried over" into the NT church. I was under the impression that the Levitical order was fulfilled & ended by Jesus (the torn veil) allowing us ALL direct access and eliminating the possibility & need for ritual consecration & a monoply of exactly that by a seperated caste of males only.
Again, the largest reason you won't find much detail in scripture is because it was not abused, no one was doing it incorrectly, no correction was needed, thus nothing was written much outlining the precise practice. However, from extra-biblical accounts and recorded history it is repleat with examples, details and understandings.For such an important activity as passing on authority, you would think there'd be more of it. Jesus didn't ritualize it, we don't see Paul or Barnabus doing it.
If I'm not mistaken, the passage re: Timothy does not explicitly state that it was apostles laying hands, rather the congregation. If I remember correctly, his "hands on" ritual had to do with his teaching gift, not consecration of the Euchrist, or of any marriages, and Paul himself preferred not to baptize.
All that really means is that your reserve the right and privelege to interpret only a part of the Gospel, the written portion to suit your particular whims and understandings. How could you ever have anythng to dispute. You are the interpretator of your own faith. It is what you say it will be. Any other is incorrect, inspite of the fact that they use the same method and the same source. Amazing how many different faiths and understandings one can derive from the Bible.I find using scripture as a stand-alone guide for faith & practice is an excellent way to avoid accumulating props, costumes, and rituals that are foreign to scriptural principles.
that is because you now have direct access to Christ since He is the priest and sacrifice. But this ONLY applies to you as a individual. If this were the ONLY way, then we do not need churches, we do not need to have a Body of Christ. We can remain as rogue individualist and be separated from one another, rather than many as one IN Christ.I can't understand how 1Peter2:5 DOESN'T address the priesthood. Rather it eliminates a seperate priesthood caste as a possibility. It explicitly elucidates that we all have consecrating power as believers. I don't see a demotion to secondary status, rather a promotion, eliminating the seperating vale.
First, the Bible is not ALL Truth. It is but a partial recording of that ALL Truth. The Bible also is not a systematic theological treatise. It ONLY, for the NT, contains exhortations of things that were not being done properly, thus you have some information about only what was incorrect. The Gospels are historical witness records but also not a detailed explanation. That is why the Bible cannot be excised from the whole. Holy Tradition is the Gospel once given, as set up in practice and understanding.BUT, I am still jazzed about looking at everything the scriptures have to say about it so, I could be convinced by an preponderance of circumstantial evidence.
Sola Scriptura is not being Berean. What the phrase means is that when Paul was teaching/preaching he admonished his hearers to confirm it from scripture, which is the OT.Bruthaman, it ain't that it says that, it's that it shows it bein' done that way(by the Bereans, at least),
If you mean traditions and if they go against scripture yes. But Tradition is not tradition. Holy Tradition is the faith and practice of the Apostles. what tradition might you have in mind that conflicts with scripture.but there is a lot of tensions in tradition AND scriptures that remain unresolved for many of us.
But that is where the error of sola scriptura lies. you have extracted it and isolated it from the whole. The Bible is first and foremost Holy Tradition.>>> Sola Scriptura doesn't mean we can't recieve truth from outside scripture, it is the way we measure those extrascriptural truths.
That is because, once again, the early Church never doubted the power and authority of the Apostles to convey the Truth as they received it. The practice and the explanation of the faith, of salvation, was not disputed on these two issues is not only relevant in the history that was recorded in the Bible but also in subsequent history for centuries.Again, no laying on of hands, no explicit transfer of the "all authority" mentioned, just a statement of His own as preface to His command to teach & baptize. He doesn't take this opportunity to articulate consecration of the Eucharist as a privilege & duty of any particular ordained authority.
he may have some relevance for you, but for me he is worthless. Why would I believe a person, 2000 years away from the actual facts, the actual teachings and practices, who is using only the Bible as a source and denies the historical relevance to the contrary. I will take a person who was inspired by the Holy Spirit, who received ALL TRUTH and taught it to the first century Church and witnesses, students of the Apostles themselves, record more than what was given in scripture alone. Furthermore, beliefs and practices that have not changed from the beginning.The keys of the kingdom are the truths of the gospel that set us free from the prison of sin, not symbols of authority, but weapons of freedom.
John Gill explains the part about "binding & loosing better than me (apologies):
And whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth, shall be bound in heaven:
and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, shall be loosed in heaven.
This also is not to be understood of binding, or loosing men's sins, by laying on, or taking off censures,
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