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Speak in Tongues - essential :

1stcenturylady

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Where in scripture is tongues ever described as a 'personal prayer language'?

1 Corinthians 14:15
"I will pray with the spirit, and I will also pray with the understanding. I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding."

Ephesians 6:18 "praying always with all prayer and supplication in the Spirit, being watchful to this end with all perseverance and supplication for all the saints"
 
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1stcenturylady

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Eh? The tongues in Acts were understood by men, no interpretation there. And the tongues in Corinth would too if there had been natives of the language spoken present.

The devout Jews understood supernaturally. The mockers did not understand and said they were drunk.


Remember, the letters to the Corinthians were written before Acts. It didn't need to be spelled out to them that the devout Jews sovereignly received the gift of interpretation.
 
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Marvin Knox

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Not surprising in the least.

"The person without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God but considers them foolishness, and cannot understand them because they are discerned only through the Spirit." 1 Corinthians 2:14
Yes, tongues (glossa) = language, in this context. It was miraculously speaking a foreign human language unknown and new to the speaker, in both Acts and 1 Corinthians.
Acts 2 says nothing about anyone speaking in a known language or even multiple known languages. Rather it says that those present "heard" them speaking in their own languages.

Do you know what happens when you assume things?
 
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swordsman1

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1 Corinthians 14:15
"I will pray with the spirit, and I will also pray with the understanding. I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding."

That is not personal tongues that is congregational tongues that needed to be translated.

Ephesians 6:18 "praying always with all prayer and supplication in the Spirit, being watchful to this end with all perseverance and supplication for all the saints"

Ephesians 6:18 is nothing to do with tongues. No mention is made of tongues. 'Praying in the Spirit' does not always mean praying in tongues. It means praying in the Spirit's leading, same as we walk in the Spirit and worship in the Spirit. And here the language spoken is clearly our native one as we are to make "all kinds of prayers and requests" and we need to know the words to be able to make specific requests in prayer. And we are to pray in the Spirit on all occasions - every time we pray we are to do so in the Spirits leading, not speak in tongues every time we pray!
 
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1stcenturylady

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Absolutely. God does not contradict His Own Word - 1 Corinthians 14:2
 
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1stcenturylady

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Right, personal tongues does not need to be interpreted, but someone with the gift of interpretation of tongues might be given the interpretation. But ALWAYS with the gift of diverse kinds of tongues.

Actually, "praying in the Spirit" is tongues as seen in 1 Corinthians 14:15. However, you may be given the interpretation to know what you are saying.

It is given to all who believe, whether they know they have the right to speak or not. It is part of the whole armor of God. It is very powerful to pray perfect prayers to God that are totally His will.
 
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swordsman1

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The devout Jews understood supernaturally. The mockers did not understand and said they were drunk.

The foreigners understood naturally, not supernaturally. The disciples spoke in other languages as the Spirit enabled THEM (Acts 2:4). No mention is made of the Spirit enabling the unregenerate foreigners. The foreigners understood the languages spoken in their own native tongue (Acts 2:6) - it then lists them all.

The mockers were the local inhabitants who did not recognize the foreign languages spoken - Acts 2:14 "Men of Judea and all you who live in Jerusalem...these men are not drunk, as you suppose..."
 
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1stcenturylady

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That is a contradiction of the Word of God. Believe it if you feel like it, but you are wrong to do so. (1 Cor. 14:2)
 
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Marvin Knox

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1stcenturylady said:
1 Corinthians 14:15
"I will pray with the spirit, and I will also pray with the understanding. I will sing with the spirit, and I will also sing with the understanding."
That is not personal tongues that is congregational tongues that needed to be translated.
And where does it say that?
I always thought prayer was personal between a man and his God.
Ephesians 6:18 is nothing to do with tongues. No mention is made of tongues.
There doesn't have to be explicit instruction to that effect.

Praying in the spirit is outlined elsewhere. Let the scriptures interpret the scriptures.
........ we need to know the words to be able to make specific requests in prayer.
Not so.

"Likewise the Spirit also helps our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered." Romans 8:26
 
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swordsman1

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Not surprising in the least.

"The person without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God but considers them foolishness, and cannot understand them because they are discerned only through the Spirit." 1 Corinthians 2:14

A Christian linguist would come to the same conclusion. Established academic principles and facts don't go straight out the window when you become a believer you know.

Acts 2 says nothing about anyone speaking in a known language or even multiple known languages.

They "began to speak in other tongues (plural) as the Spirit enabled them".

Rather it says that those present "heard" them speaking in their own languages.

Yep, each one "heard their own language being spoken". The disciples were speaking their native language. That is the natural meaning of the sentence. If I said I heard a Frenchman speaking in English, it means the Frenchman was speaking English, not he was speaking gobbledegook and it was automatically translated into English my ears.
 
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swordsman1

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Actually, "praying in the Spirit" is tongues as seen in 1 Corinthians 14:15. However, you may be given the interpretation to know what you are saying.

The is no mention of the Holy Spirit in 1 Cor 14:15.

So what shall I do? I will pray with my spirit, but I will also pray with my understanding; I will sing with my spirit, but I will also sing with my understanding.

It is given to all who believe, whether they know they have the right to speak or not. It is part of the whole armor of God. It is very powerful to pray perfect prayers to God that are totally His will.

Tongues is not given to all who believe (see my previous post), nor is it anything to do with Eph 6:18 as I just explained.
 
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Marvin Knox

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A Christian linguist would come to the same conclusion. Established academic principles and facts don't go straight out the window when you become a believer you know.
Christian or not, a human linguist would come up dry when trying to apply the natural laws of linguistics to the groanings of the Spirit of God.
They "began to speak in other tongues (plural) as the Spirit enabled them".
Unknown tongues - not known human languages. You assume too much.
Yep, each one "heard their own language being spoken". The disciples were speaking their native language.
Again you assume that because they heard the disciples in their own language the disciples were speaking their particular language.
If I said I heard a Frenchman speaking in English, it means the Frenchman was speaking English, not he was speaking gobbledegook and it was automatically translated into English my ears.
Do you really believe that one disciple was speaking, say French, and a group of French passers by just happened by the back porch where those disciples were speaking?

Do you really believe that another disciple was speaking, say Spanish, and a group of Spanish passers by just happened by the front porch where those disciples were speaking?

And on and on it goes?

Isn't it more likely - in light of the creation of the nations at Babel - what we are seeing here is a reversal of that scattering of nations and a bringing together of all nations through that reversal in the Kingdom of God by the same Spirit of God who scattered them in the first place?

Do you really think that in a cosmopolitan city like Jerusalem at the the time of Pentecost anyone, let alone most, would think the speakers of a known foreign language to be drunk because they were speaking it?

Is it not more likely that those who were not being drawn by God did not receive the interpretation of the words of the Spirit of God while the elect among them did?

Of course it is.

You apparently only hear what you want to hear when you, supposedly, listen to the Spirit of God while reading His words from the scriptures.
 
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JESUS=G.O.A.T

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I was referencing a different verse not verse 27/28 but yeah in those verses he is clearly referring to the gift of tounques and how it is properly conducted. The gift which you've seemed to finally come to terms with based off this response... is God presenting an message through an individual. God wasn't presenting 100+ messages through individuals at the day of pentecost that needed interpretation. In fact this verse supports my point even more... it isn't God's will to have multiple individuals present messages from him at one time. They received the holy ghost with the sign of tounques at pentecost. THe gift is something else, a direct message from God which is why at the most 2-3 should be speaking.


TBH I see interesting study just wondering have you ever asked God about it yourself?? I mean it's good to look towards studies and such but doesn't hurt to seek something yourself, that's waht I did and I found what I was looking for. I wasn't convinced by parents or anyone like that I just prayed for the holy spirit and I experienced speaking in tounques and until this day in prayer and worship I experience it.

Additionally there are multiple studies on religious uh...things you could say and a lot of them end up "disproving" spiritual matters or stories such as Noah's Ark. The bible says the natural man cannot receive this after all and we see the result quite often. More become atheist everyday for example becuase they just have a natural perspective and rely on such studies. I'm not dismissing the one you are referring to straight up i'm just making a point be careful with that stuff.
 
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JESUS=G.O.A.T

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1. Paul mentions how he's glad he speaks in tongues more then them. Mary was present at pentecost becuase remember she was one of the ones JESUS told to meet at the room for the power from on high. The samaritans got the holy ghost though in acts...and many in acts who received it spoke in tounques...

2. The fact that they spoke at such historical events emphasizes the fact that speaking in tounques is important it doesn't diminish it. If speaking in tounques in the bible was just some...side minor thing that took place in some little hut with one group of people or something then your case would be stronger...but because the events were so major, there was such a variety of people present at pentecost for example, and this was even prophesied multiple times the significance is enhanced greatly.

The fact the events were so significant indicate well it's important and the fact that there was a emphasis it seems on a variety of people receiving it emphasizes how this is for people even today. Joel himself prophesied sons and daughters and fathers receiving it. And then peter goes up and says it's for everyone afar off it's not a coincidence.
 
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swordsman1

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And where does it say that.
I always thought prayer was personal between a man and his God.

Carry on reading.... 1 Cor 14:16 "Otherwise when you are praising God in the Spirit, how can someone else, who is now put in the position of an inquirer, say “Amen” to your thanksgiving, since they do not know what you are saying?"

There doesn't have to be explicit instruction to that effect.

Praying in the spirit is outlined elsewhere. Let the scriptures interpret the scriptures.

The rest of the passage makes it clear it cannot be referring to tongues.

Not so.

"Likewise the Spirit also helps our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered." Romans 8:26

In Romans 8:26 we do not know what to pray for; in Eph 6:18 we do - we pray with "all kinds of requests" and "praying for all the Lord’s people".

Romans 8 is also nothing to do with tongues.
 
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1stcenturylady

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"These signs will follow those who BELIEVE." Are you a believer or an unbeliever?

By a mocker's use of the word, "gobbledegook," I have to wonder.
 
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Ron Gurley

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OP: "Speaking in "tongues"?

A1:
1 Corinthians 14:22 (NASB)
So then "tongues" are for a "sign", NOT to those who believe (saved) but to unbelievers; but "prophecy" is for a sign, not to unbelievers but to those who believe.Therefore if the whole "church assembles" together and all speak in "tongues", and ungifted men or unbelievers enter, will they not say that you are mad?

tongues...Greek 1100...glōssa...
1.the tongue, a member of the body, an organ of speech
2.a tongue
1.the language or dialect used by a particular people distinct from that of other nations

but prophecy...Greek 4394...prophēteia...
1.a discourse emanating from divine inspiration and declaring the purposes of God,
whether by reproving and admonishing the wicked, or comforting the afflicted, or revealing things hidden;
esp. by foretelling future events
2.Used in the NT of the utterance of OT prophets
1.of the prediction of events relating to Christ's kingdom and its speedy triumph,
together with the consolations and admonitions pertaining to it,
the spirit of prophecy, the divine mind, to which the prophetic faculty is due
2.of the endowment and speech of the Christian teachers called prophets
3.the gifts and utterances of these prophets,
esp. of the predictions of the works of which, set apart to teach the gospel, will accomplish for the kingdom of Christ

The miraculous "sign" gifts used by God to authenticate ~12-men as spirit-led MESSENGERS of the Gospel and TRUTH
(aka apostles) CEASED when the last of the original MSS of the Bible were "produced"...~100 AD.


Have the charismatic gifts ceased? | carm

When Did the Gift of Tongues Cease?

Two Views on the "Sign Gifts": Continuity Vs. Discontinuity
 
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DamianWarS

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I know there are doctrines that do not separate the baptism of the HS with the experience of salvation but it is important to point out that in Acts the baptism of the HS is shown as a separate experience from salvation and from water baptism.

Acts 4 shows us a subsequent baptism of the HS for the original 120 present during pentecost manifested through special measure of boldness.

Acts 8 shows that the early Samaritans accepted faith in Jesus Christ as they were "[water] baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus" but had not yet "received the Spirit". Although not specific in the text it is clear from the reaction from Simon that by the act of laying of of hands and prayer that something noticeable happened as Simon immediately offered money so that he could have this power too.

In Acts 10 shows us the baptism of the HS being poured out to Cornelius and his household after Peter affirms salvation. Peter reports the "Holy Spirit fell on them just as on us at the beginning"

Acts 19 Paul encounters some of John's disciples he then baptises them in water then lays hands on them to receive the HS.

These accounts in Acts do not show the HS giving out gifts each differently but rather like a blanket covering all and the results are the same for all. This is simply how the accounts of Acts shows the HS and I make no apologies that it does not following the rules laid out 1 Corinthians 12-14.

As for the 3000 on the day of Pentecost the text only says they were baptised but not baptised by the HS so it would be irresponsible to look at this as an example of the baptism of the HS in Acts. The example would be from Acts 2:4 "And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance".

So Paul teaches one thing and Acts shows another. Both must be true experiences of the HS but rather sweeping the accounts of Acts under a rug why not teach that these experiences are also genuine. I recognize there is a lot of abuse but abuse should not deter us from teaching and acting upon what the bible shows is correct. Read Acts and it will show the baptism of the HS is a separate experience from salvation and water baptism, it shows this experience is like a pouring out (or as scripture explains a "falling") indiscriminately to all, that there are subsequent moments in a believer's life and the baptism of the HS manifests recognizable power of the HS most typically tongues.
 
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