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Something higher than God wants to save everyone...

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Colossians

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msortwell,

But you use as evidence the conditions present in the world today.
That is the default premise for interpreting scripture, for there is no proof in scripture that there was anything different.

The onus is on you to prove it was otherwise: show us in scripture where Adam had no dying cells in his body. Show us where wheat grew without dying first.
 
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Colossians

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Philipdt,


On Rom 9:19:
The question that is asked in Rom 9:19 is a question that Paul anticipates: "Why does He yet find fault? For who has resisted His will?" To paraphrase the question that Paul anticipates: Why does God find fault with the Jews after God has hardened their heats in order to bring salvation to the non-Jews also (verse 30) for no one could succeed in stopping God from performing his will / purpose anyway?
.
1. The question in v19 is raised based upon foregoing teaching. Vs 30 does not enter the equation at that point. The prime examples of negative election to which v19 refers were the hardening of Pharoah, and the hating of Esau before he was born. Neither of these were Jews.
2. The question “who can resist his will”, is a general “who”, and applies to any human being. The bible is ultimately about man in general: examples used as precedent are not to surplant the overall teaching they support. Thus the ultimate and definitive salvation verse of the entire NT (Rom 10:9), applicable to all human beings, occurs smack bang in the middle of this Jew-Gentile contrastive section.
3. Jacob was not a Jew when he was chosen. He founded the Jewish race through his bearing of 12 sons. Before he was born, he was loved (v11), and loved as an individual. “Israel” was first and foremost an individual.

You should stop trying to bend scripture to suit your bias.
If you had written Romans, there is no way in the world you would have written it as is.
On the other hand our position could not be any better represented than by what is written.
 
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moonbeam

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Your presumtions are incorrect..........Adam had the ability to sin, an ability he chose to exercise
There must be some text to encourage the reader of Scripture to reject the plain message of Gen 1:31.
You insist that the text refers to a moral quality.....how do you acount for Satan in that equation?......Rather....if the text refers to functionality than the designed purpose for the creation...."For the earnest expectation of the creation eagerly waits for the revealing of the sons of God"........ will be met......."Very Good"
Why do you believe that corruption was present in the creation, as it was originally created? What Scripture do you see as teaching more clearly the truth of the condition of the world (including Adam) at the time of creation?
Rom8:20 "For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of him who subjected it in hope"
Please, if you know of such a text, direct us to it, or to one that requires that we necessarily conclude that there must have been corruption within that which God create and declared to be very good.
Rom8:21 "Because the creation itself also will be delivered from the bondage of corruption..."
Answered above.......I would be interested to see which text you will bring to bear in support of your assertion that Gen1:31 must be interpreted in a strictly moral sense.

 
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msortwell

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moonbeam said:
Your presumtions are incorrect..........Adam had the ability to sin, an ability he chose to exercise

My point is that Adam was not created with an inclination to sin. Why do you speak of being created with an ability to sin? It would be absurd to claim that he was created without the ability to sin, for he did sin. I see no evidence in Scripture that even hints that Adam was created predisposed/inclined to sin.

moonbeam said:
You insist that the text refers to a moral quality.....how do you acount for Satan in that equation?

Is there Scripture that indicates that Satan had already sinned/fallen when God made the observation in Gen 1:31? I don't recall any. If you are aware of Scripture which establishes the time of Satan's sin (relative to the creation of Adam, and the Adam's subsequent sin) point it out please.

I am averse to placing any type of qualifier on God's unqualified statement. He declared that the creation was very good - not simply very good morally, not just very good functionally. He declared it to be very good period.

My position is that the natural, straight forward, interpretation of Gen 1:31 is that God is making an unqualified / absolute assessment and declaration of the goodness of His creation. He saw nothing evil in what He created. It seems to me that the burden of proof lies upon any that would place a limitation upon the "goodness" upon the world, as created, when God Himself expressed not such limitation.

It is not impossible to interpret 1:31 as referring to only to Functionality. But to do so we must conclude that it cannot refer to morality as well. That conclusion must be driven by something external to Gen 1:31. What is it in the Scriptures that shapes your understanding of Gen 1:31.


Again . . . let's stay focused. The assertion I have made is not that Gen 1:31 must mean moral goodness exclusively. Rather, I assert that it means very good, excluding nothing. It was good in any way to which goodness can be attributed. But, for the purpose of addressing the main point of this thread it is necessary to determine if it included good morally. Any argument that you make pointing to the functional goodness (or functional suitability) of the creation is silent regarding creation's moral goodness. There is nothing that requires that it be one or the other. Jesus Christ, when He came in the flesh, was both morally good, and fully suitable (functional) to perform His purpose.

Relative to why I would conclude that Gen 1:31 includes a proclamation regarding the moral goodness (or more precisely an absence of evil) I would offer the following.

Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.(KJV)

This text states clearly that it was because of what Adam committed (his actions) that rendered all of humanity sinners. Our sin guilt was not received because we received from him a common nature or a common inclination. Our sin guilt was received because he committed sin. If Adam was born with a propensity or an inclination to sin as part of his nature, then we would inherit that nature and God would be the reason that Adam was a sinner, and the reason that we, his descendents are sinners.

Blessings,

msortwell
 
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Philip dT

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The question in v19 is raised based upon foregoing teaching
Exactly. Rom 9:1-5 "I tell the truth in Christ, I do not lie, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Spirit, (2) that I have great heaviness and continual pain in my heart. (3) For I myself was wishing to be accursed from Christ for my brothers, my kinsmen according to the flesh, (4) who are Israelites; to whom belong the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the Law, and the service of God, and the promises; (5) whose are the fathers, and of whom is the Christ according to flesh, He being God over all, blessed forever. Amen."

What is Paul talking about here? He is talking about the fact that he is in continual pain. Why? Because there were Israelites who thought that God's grace was only for them. That is why he says in verse 6: "not all those of Israel are Israel." He shows through Rom 9-11 that God's grace and the gospel has come to the gentiles also, and that it is God's sovereign choice to do so. So, I agree that the matter of Gentiles is not introduced in verse 30. Verse 30 only sums up what has been discussed previously. This matter is plain and simple and does not need any special knowledge to see.

The question “who can resist his will”, is a general “who”, and applies to any human being.

I agree, but Paul uses this in a specific context where he addresses the whole issue of the Israelites that do not want to accept the fact that Gentiles are also welcome in God's kingdom. In this context, "his will" is "boulema" not "thelo," in other words, it refers to his "purpose" (to bring te gospel to the Gentiles also).

Thus the ultimate and definitive salvation verse of the entire NT (Rom 10:9), applicable to all human beings, occurs smack bang in the middle of this Jew-Gentile contrastive section.


So you do agree that the whole issue of the Gentiles who is also welcome in God's kingdom is being addressed in Rom 9-11?

Jacob was not a Jew when he was chosen. He founded the Jewish race through his bearing of 12 sons. Before he was born, he was loved (v11), and loved as an individual. “Israel” was first and foremost an individual.


Well, on this point I agree that "Jews" was not the appropriate term. I should have said "Israelites."
 
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msortwell

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Where in the text do you see any reference to what the Israelites thought regarding their exclusive right to God’s grace?

Verses 14 through 24 are a parenthesis wherein Paul acknowledges and rejects an anticipated protest to the outworking of God’s Sovereign Grace.

In verses 1-5 Paul is making the observation that Israel has rejected the promised messiah. He begins to make this even more clear as he gets to verse 8. “That is, They which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed.”

In verses 6-13 he begins to explain that national Israel’s rejection of the Messiah was not a defeat, but rather that God had always intended that the promise be received by His elect- the children of the promise (rather than the children of the flesh – national Israel).

But who are “the children of the promise?” See verse 26, “And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people; there they shall be called the children of the living God." This children of God are the children of the promise, which come from a place where it was said unto them that they were not God's people - they are Gentiles.

The “children of the promise” are the gentiles (it was said unto them, Ye are not my people), for these are the children of God. These are the true Israel, the children of the promise. Verse 6 begs the question, “Who is Israel?” Verses 7, 8, and 26 provide the answer.

Paul goes on to clarify in verses 30 and 31. “What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith. But Israek which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.”


Again, you have yet to indicate where in the text you see reference to national Israel’s claim to exclusive right to God’s Grace. And Again, the plain, straight forward sense of Romans 9:4&5 is that national Israel had every opportunity, every advantage in being the recipients of the Messianic promises. But Paul is heartsick because they, despite all of their privilege, rejected Christ.

Philip dT said:
So you do agree that the whole issue of the Gentiles who is also welcome in God's kingdom is being addressed in Rom 9-11?

More than verse 11 laying claim that the Gentiles are “also welcome,” the verse is beginning to make the case that being of national Israel is no longer of any significance in God’s redemptive plan. Rather it is those who are the “children of the promise” (vs 8) that are the true Israel (or counted for the seed vs. 7&8), a significant majority of whom are Gentiles (vs 26).

Blessings,

msortwell
 
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Colossians

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Msort,

My point is that Adam was not created with an inclination to sin. Why do you speak of being created with an ability to sin? It would be absurd to claim that he was created without the ability to sin, for he did sin.
The ability to sin, and the inclination to sin, are the same thing. Your dichotomy is false.
Similarly, God's "will" equals God's "can". It is no different with man.
Funny how you depart from the generic principles of Calvinism when it comes to Eden.



I see no evidence in Scripture that even hints that Adam was created predisposed/inclined to sin.
You haven't thought through just what sort of evidence would suffice. Let us know.



The overall principle remains: Adam was not God, and therefore being not God, was a sinner. There is only one non-sinner in the universe: God.

Sin is defined as that which is not God. Your problem is that you keep in thinking in terms of transgression of the law to define sin. Gal 3:12 tells us that keeping the law is in fact sin itself.

Sin cannot proceed from one who is not a sinner. A tree is known by its fruit.
You cannot say that someone was once not a sinner, but now is: this is philosophically erroneous: something cannot transform itself into that which has no part in it.
 
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Colossians

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Philpdt,

The question in v19 is raised based upon foregoing teaching
Exactly. Rom 9:1-5 "I tell the truth in Christ, I do not lie, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Spirit, (2) that I have great heaviness and continual pain in my heart. (3) For I myself was wishing to be accursed from Christ for my brothers, my kinsmen according to the flesh, (4) who are Israelites; …
What is Paul talking about here? He is talking about the fact that he is in continual pain. Why? Because there were Israelites who thought that God's grace was only for them.

And he explains shortly after, the reason for such situation: God does what He wants with whatever individuals he chooses.


The question “who can resist his will”, is a general “who”, and applies to any human being.
I agree, but Paul uses this in a specific context where he addresses the whole issue of the Israelites that do not want to accept the fact that Gentiles are also welcome in God's kingdom.
That doesn’t undo the generalness of “who”. The point stands: the protocol is always “foundational concept, then application”, “theory, then practice”, “base semantic, subset application”.
A general “who” is not undone via an example which draws upon some of its substance.
Again you seek to supplant the greater foundation with a mere application of it.



Thus the ultimate and definitive salvation verse of the entire NT (Rom 10:9), applicable to all human beings, occurs smack bang in the middle of this Jew-Gentile contrastive section.
So you do agree that the whole issue of the Gentiles who is also welcome in God's kingdom is being addressed in Rom 9-11?
I refer to a verse of individual salvation (Rm 10:9), thus proving that Romans 9-11 is primarily about individuals, and it goes right over your head.
The NT is not ‘systematic theology’: the apostles wrote in closer to ‘female’ language than male logic.
The epistles are not premeditatively structured: Paul does not plan to begin and end subjects as we would a thesis: he is writing in the Spirit, spontaneously. That is why it chops and changes course without notice. And there were no chapter divisions in scripture.
Paul wrote about the preeminence of Christ, and the need for individual salvation. Along the way, various side-issues such as the in-gathering of the Gentiles are drawn upon to support this all encompassing truth - they do not supplant that truth, nor do they disregard the generic and philosophical principles (absolute sovereignty of the type of Rom 9:20,21, the universally applicable “who” of Rom 9:19) which glue them together.

But if we were to search for any particular thrust in Romans, it would not be Gentiles vs Jews, but Law vs Grace. Paul uses the Gentile/Jew contrast for his support of the annullment of the law, and righteousness by faith in Christ alone.




Jacob was not a Jew when he was chosen. He founded the Jewish race through his bearing of 12 sons. Before he was born, he was loved (v11), and loved as an individual. “Israel” was first and foremost an individual
Well, on this point I agree that "Jews" was not the appropriate term. I should have said "Israelites."
Again you miss the point: Jacob was an individual before he was a nation. Paul’s reference to God’s choosing of him before he was born was to instantiate absolute sovereignty for the purpose of ‘legal’ precedent, thereby conferring an infinite number of repetitions of such sovereignty toward all persons, through all ages. Thus Rom 9:17,18,19-21.




Once again, there is no way in the world you with your current ideology would have written Rom 9 as it is: it is simply too opposite: the 'Magna Carta' of absolute sovereignty.
On the other hand, we couldn't have written it better.
 
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msortwell

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Coll: The ability to sin, and the inclination to sin, are the same thing. Your dichotomy is false.
Similarly, God's "will" equals God's "can". It is no different with man.
Funny how you depart from the generic principles of Calvinism when it comes to Eden.

My Reply: A primary tenet of Calvinism is that doctrine is constructed from truths logically deduced from the inspired text. You build your doctrine within the silent margins of Scripture and when asked to provide the basis for your understanding you generally dodge the question. It seems that you believe that we have license to establish as doctrine whatsoever cannot be flatly contradicted by the text, rather than by what the text teaches. See your next “response” for a prime example.

You have made the unfounded leap that whatsoever the Bible describes regarding the present condition of man, relative to depravity, applies to Adam. This you do without considering the Scriptural basis that explains the cause for man’s depravity – because of Adam’s sin (Romans 5:17-19)

Msortwell said: I see no evidence in Scripture that even hints that Adam was created predisposed/inclined to sin.
Coll: You haven't thought through just what sort of evidence would suffice. Let us know.

My Reply: I readily admit that I see no evidence for the doctrine that you hold. You are the one that holds this doctrine, why will you not offer the basis for this belief. Perhaps, as a read your post you have already answered that question. “Similarly God’s ‘will’ equals God’s ‘can. It is not different with man.” If you are consistent, then I can only conclude that you will not offer evidence for this doctrine that you embrace, because you can not offer evidence. And please try not to be so arrogant as to declare what I have, or have not, thought through. The sad truth is that you will simply ignore this request also. Isn’t it difficult to type your responses with your hands over your eyes?

Coll: The overall principle remains: Adam was not God, and therefore being not God, was a sinner. There is only one non-sinner in the universe: God.

My Reply:. . . and all that is not God is a sinner? Is the angel Gabriel a sinner? Is my dog a sinner? Is a stone a sinner? Simply because A does not equal B, and B does not equal C, does not require that A equals C. This is patently absurd! You need to prove that A=C, not simply prove that A may equal C. The Scripture declare that many things are good. The context reveals that ‘good’ can mean several different things within a variety of contexts.

Coll: Sin is defined as that which is not God. Your problem is that you keep in thinking in terms of transgression of the law to define sin. Gal 3:12 tells us that keeping the law is in fact sin itself.

My Reply:
Where do the Scriptures teach explicitly or implicitly that sin is defined a “that which is not God?” Back up these assertions with something beyond your own words! Are you going to challenge me once again to bear evidence that the Scriptures do not provide this definition? I will try to explain it this way. Read from Gen 1:1 through Rev 22:21, you will find nothing that defines sin as “that which is not God.” Now, your task is to prove that statement false. That would constitute answering the request to provide Scriptural evidence that the definition that you provided for sin is biblical.

Coll: Sin cannot proceed from one who is not a sinner. A tree is known by its fruit.
You cannot say that someone was once not a sinner, but now is: this is philosophically erroneous: something cannot transform itself into that which has no part in it.

My Reply: You consistently confuse man’s current condition with Adam's created condition. We sin because we are born sinners. We are born sinners because we sinned IN ADAM.

Adam was under no federal head. No man had ever sinned before. He was created with the ability to sin. You continue to refer to Jesus proclamation in Matthew 7 regarding trees and fruit. It is a metaphor! Let’s try pressing that metaphor a bit further. Is a bad tree surely to have always been a bad tree? That is, is it necessary that it never bore good fruit? No. A tree can bear good fruit for a season and then bear bad fruit at a later time. But, before it bears bad fruit something changes within the tree itself. All that this exercise show us is that Jesus was speaking of trees with a current condition (being good or bad). You are inappropriately assuming that the trees bearing bad fruit must always have been bad. Obviously the metaphor falls apart (relative to its applicability to the human condition) if you press it too far. But the point is that sin begins in the heart.

When Adam was offered the fruit, he most certainly did lust after it. He desired it. But it was not a desire placed within him by his Creator. And it would seem to me that James 1:13-17 is trying very hard to make sure that we understand that God did not place the desire to sin within man. He is not responsible for placing the desire to sin in man today, there is no reason to presume that he placed it within Adam.

James 1:13-17
13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
14 But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
16 Do not err, my beloved brethren.
17 Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and cometh down from the Father of lights, with whom is no variableness, neither shadow of turning. (KJV)

Blessings,

msortwell
 
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Colossians

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Msortwell,

The ability to sin, and the inclination to sin, are the same thing. Your dichotomy is false.
Similarly, God's "will" equals God's "can". It is no different with man.
Funny how you depart from the generic principles of Calvinism when it comes to Eden.
A primary tenet of Calvinism is that doctrine is constructed from truths logically deduced from the inspired text. You build your doctrine within the silent margins of Scripture and when asked to provide the basis for your understanding you generally dodge the question.
The basis, as I implied, is the foundation of Calvinism: God’s “will” = God’s “can”, as seen in “Jesus Christ the wisdom and the power of God”, and on the man side of things: man’s inability to be righteous is inextricably tied to his will: (‘Total Depravity’ ) .

You cannot have it both ways. If you declare that man cannot desire righteousness because he is not capable of it, then you must agree that capability and volition are inextricably tied together when it comes to spiritual state.
We thus conclude that man’s spiritual ability is inextricably tied to his will, and that Adam’s will manifesting itself as it did, his spiritual ability was pointed in the same sinful ‘direction’: self before God: ‘Me first’.

Your methodology requires explicit reference. But explicit reference is not the stuff of deeper doctrine. Deeper doctrine is derived, not stated. That is why it is not as readily known. And that is why it is enjoyable discovering it.






You have made the unfounded leap that whatsoever the Bible describes regarding the present condition of man, relative to depravity, applies to Adam.
It is quiet well founded: “ a tree is known by its fruit”… “ a good tree bringeth forth not corrupt fruit”.
In the absence of any evidence to the contrary, this principle of statal constancy holds by default. It is your preconception which prohibits the proper uninhibited application of this verse to the beginning of creation: redundantly framing your premise as argument.
Jesus in these verses enunciates a philosophical principle: you cannot pull yourself off the ground by your own bootstraps. Such principle is the very foundation of Calvinism: God must save, for man is not capable of it.
The onus is on you to show that there was an interruption to this principle of states, that at some earlier point in time, that which emanated could do so from a state contrary to itself.






I see no evidence in Scripture that even hints that Adam was created predisposed/inclined to sin.
You haven't thought through just what sort of evidence would suffice. Let us know.
I readily admit that I see no evidence for the doctrine that you hold. You are the one that holds this doctrine, why will you not offer the basis for this belief.
You ask for evidence, yet you:
1. Do not stipulate what sort of evidence you require.
2. Render as inadmissible the evidence of what occurred: Adam’s having sinned, thus robbing us of our prime evidence, and attempting to force us to find less convincing evidence.

Presumably you feel that there should be evidence of his propensity to sin, before his having sinned. This is to request the chicken before the egg. And it is to invent some virtual hypothetical entity which leans toward a negative while at the same time being completely unattached to it. Such creature cannot exist in our time-space continuum.
We show you the chicken and thus declare there must have been an egg, and you tell us that you want proof of the egg apart from the chicken. If our legal system ever adopts these principles, the streets will be full of criminals.






The overall principle remains: Adam was not God, and therefore being not God, was a sinner. There is only one non-sinner in the universe: God.
and all that is not God is a sinner? Is the angel Gabriel a sinner? Is my dog a sinner? Is a stone a sinner?
You should assume at this level of theology that such trivial counterexamples are already taken into account in our assertion:
Dogs are not spiritual beings.
Angels that are God’s, are so because just as with human beings, they are elect (1 Ti 5:21). Their substance is a mystery, but they appear to have some internal tie to the person of God, hence “the angel of the Lord” can refer to God Himself.
Angels that are not elect simply prove our assertion: they are now demons.

You will agree with the often touted “sin is separation from God” . But you need to go further here:
That which is not God, is by definition, infinitely separated from God. Man is not God, and therefore constitutes sin. Hence Rom 8:20's "..the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly.., meaning, "the non-creator spirits were put into the uselessness of a physical domain, that which is ineffective toward the kingdom of God and which self-expires accordingly".
This is why He did not do what God wanted, for only God can do what God wants. This is the principle of Total Depravity.

The problem is that you think of ‘separation’ from God merely in terms of relationship, but it is more than this in the spiritual realm: it is state of being. Thus “He that is joined to the Lord is one spirit” .
It follows then that one’s experiencing a relational separation from God is simply a manifestation of one’s statal separation from God, viz. no-one who is not God is joined to God.
This ‘state causes effect’ principle was typed in Adam’s first of all being naked, before he knew he was naked.

Consider the parallel in the human body: a donated organ will be rejected unless powerful anti-rejection drugs are used. Because the organ is not of the same stock (‘being’ ) as that in which it is implanted, it experiences a ‘relational separation’. This shadow realm example speaks to the state of things in the heavenlies/spiritual realm.






Sin cannot proceed from one who is not a sinner. A tree is known by its fruit.
You cannot say that someone was once not a sinner, but now is: this is philosophically erroneous: something cannot transform itself into that which has no part in it.
You consistently confuse man’s current condition with Adam's created condition.
Again, your domain restriction here is artificial. And it is to redundantly frame your premise as an argument.
A tree is known by its fruit. The onus is on you to show some interruption to this universal principle, not on us to doubly prove it is true.
Consider also the scripture: “Man is tempted, when he is drawn aside by his own lust”. Thus Adam had lust. Lust cannot come from non-lust anymore than life can come from non-life.






Adam was under no federal head.
Which is why he could not and would not submit to God. This is a foundation of Calvinism.
Only that which is under the Headship of God, will and can please God. That which cannot and will not please God, is sin.
Thus there is no record in the bible of Adam’s pleasing of God in Eden. And this stands to reason, for “without faith it is impossible to please Him”, and we know that faith’s necessary companion is absence of sight of the object of faith.
Adam could see God in Eden.






No man had ever sinned before.
There is a first time for everything. But it is more than that: Adam was in sin as soon as he opened his eyes. He just didn’t know it. A little while later his wife helped him find out about it.
Praise God for our wives: without them, we wouldn’t know why we needed help! (Haha!)
“Husbands love your wives as Christ loved the church and gave Himself up for her”






He was created with the ability to sin.
This is erroneous, and unscriptural.
And it is easy to show the errancy thereof:
Describe what this ‘ability’ comprises without referring to the will (define it without reference to the will).






You continue to refer to Jesus proclamation in Matthew 7 regarding trees and fruit. It is a metaphor! Let’s try pressing that metaphor a bit further. Is a bad tree surely to have always been a bad tree? That is, is it necessary that it never bore good fruit? No. A tree can bear good fruit for a season and then bear bad fruit at a later time.
You illegally modify/extend the analogy. Inherent in Jesus’ reference to the tree analogy, is the premise that the tree stays the same. Otherwise there is no application in it.
You contradict the basic tenets of Total Depravity, and eternal righteousness.






But, before it bears bad fruit something changes within the tree itself.
A born again believer is not merely revamped, he is regenerated. The literal Greek of 2 Cor 5:17’s “new creature” means “a creature that has never existed before”. Thus ”it is no longer I that liveth, but Christ”.
The point of Jesus’ tree analogy is that state cannot transform itself either positively of negatively.
You seem to miss this philosophical principle time and again. Your assertion that a tree might not remain as is, is simply another instance of framing your premise as an argument. Redundant.






When Adam was offered the fruit, he most certainly did lust after it. He desired it. But it was not a desire placed within him by his Creator.
All things were created by the creator. That is why we call Him the Creator.
That is why He tells us that He creates evil; that is why He commisioned a demon to bring down Ahab; that is why He tells us He hardened Pharoah’s heart; that is why He tells us He makes the deaf and blind as they are from birth.
But such is to go beyond minimum required proof. Man was not God, and therefore had no reason to put God before himself.

You see, the gospel, and all of reality, is framed within the absolute of ‘person’.
Namely, that each person is unique and a closed entity: no person contains another person. The implication is therefore that no person will desire the absolute good of another person, unless he is that other person.

God is not a non-sinner because of what he does not do: He is a non-sinner because He is not [not God]. That is, God is a unique individual who is the substantive of existence: the “I am” . It is not whether one has the status (rank) of God that defines whether one is in sin or not, it is whether one is the unique individual person who is God, that defines whether one is in sin or not.

To give you an example, suppose you were God as you are. I am of the same rank as you (we are both humans) yet you are God and I am not. Now, even though we are of the same rank, I am in sin, because I am not you. My state of sin will then ratify itself: I will do what is best for me, and not for you. On the other hand, you can do what you want, and it will never be sin, because it is done by you.

There is a great gospel song of the 1980s in which is the line: "Lord I worship You because of who You are, not for all the mighty deeds that You have done".
It is the Holy Spirit who relates to us the unique personality, the unique ‘personness’, the unique identity, of God.






And it would seem to me that James 1:13-17 is trying very hard to make sure that we understand that God did not place the desire to sin within man. He is not responsible for placing the desire to sin in man today, there is no reason to presume that he placed it within Adam.
On the contrary, James is laying down the line of demarcation between God’s sovereign activity (which includes our actions) and our right to blame Him in an attempt to exhonerate ourselves. Such verse is parallel to Rom 9:19-21.
This verse of James is nearly always erroneously extended to the full scope of sovereignty. Instead, it deals with the attitude of the believer, rendering hyper-Calvinistic attitudes (“I sinned because I was predestined to do it and therefore it is not my fault” ) as disobedience to the gospel.

Similarly, John tells us that one born of God cannot sin, after just having told us that if we say we have no sin, we lie.
The ‘we cannot sin’ concept relates our state of being in Christ; the earlier warning about boasting has a different apobetic and pragmatic focus: it is to ensure those in Christ understand they are there by grace and grace alone.



Worship Jesus Christ and Jesus Christ alone.
 
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moonbeam

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Adam sinned because he was designed to sin.........how else could he of sinned if God the Father had not decreed that he sin?........if Christ is ordained a propitiation for our sins from the foundation of the world than so also the reasons why he must be made that propitiation, must themselves have been ordained also from the foundation of the world......sin exists because the Father desired that it exist...so that His purposes are brought to fruition......Adams flesh responded to the commandment of God the same way ours does, by desiring, willing and choosing that which is prohibited by Gods law....hence Adam ate the fruit offered to him, knowingly and willingly.....and that he did so was Gods intention and design.....Adams experience was of a enviroment where "for were there is no law there is no transgression" to one which had changed to "I was alive once without the law......but when the commandment came....sin revived....and I died' Adam became cognisant of the fact that he was a sinner..... that is....that he WAS a sinner.
We know that the angels shouted for joy at the foundation of the world, and that the angels that did not sin with Satan were themselves "elect" and chosen in Christ.... as we are ourselves... in Christ.....Satan certainly sinned before Adam, as his heart was bent on seducing Adam through Eve while Adam was still "innocent" that is to say, had yet to become aware of the fact that he was a sinner.....did Satan sin prior to Gen1:31?....possible....but hard to prove if he did....or didn't
I am averse to placing any type of qualifier on God's unqualified statement. He declared that the creation was very good - not simply very good morally, not just very good functionally. He declared it to be very good period.
Exactly....God declares it "very good".....cognisant of the fact that Satan will rebel and cause Adam to sin and all that follows etc.
My position is that the natural, straight forward, interpretation of Gen 1:31 is that God is making an unqualified / absolute assessment and declaration of the goodness of His creation. He saw nothing evil in what He created.
Your assesment is based upon your understanding that "good" must equate to the abscence of evil.....rather than "good" equating to that which is in accordance with Gods will.
It seems to me that the burden of proof lies upon any that would place a limitation upon the "goodness" upon the world, as created, when God Himself expressed not such limitation.
No limitations of the "goodness" of God are intended or envisioned....Christ himself, and our glorification in Him, is included in the "goodness" spoken of by God.....He is ordained to be the propitiation for our sins....we must have sins that he may be the propitiation for them....we must sin...and we did...in Adam....that Christ may be Glorified to the praise of God the Father.
It is not impossible to interpret 1:31 as referring to only to Functionality. But to do so we must conclude that it cannot refer to morality as well.
There is no reason to assume that.......the moral component of the creation and the presence of sin is embraced as a subset of the whole "Creation" and included in the Functionality applied to the assesment "very good"
That conclusion must be driven by something external to Gen 1:31. What is it in the Scriptures that shapes your understanding of Gen 1:31.
If the assesment "very good" was to be understood as a moral assesment primarily, it does seem to be very short sighted and a some what naive assesment in hindsight......considering Gods foresight?
Rather than showing the abscence of evil..... it reveals the prescence of evil....why was he disobedient?
Thats right...we are sinners...Adam found that out the same way we did...when God revealed it to him/us.....But no charge of wrong doing can be brought against God......the Holy One of Isreal cannot be charged with unrighteousness.....not because he can do no wrong....but because what ever He does IS righteous...as He is Righteous

peace in Christ
 
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