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Your presumtions are incorrect..........Adam had the ability to sin, an ability he chose to exercisemsortwell said:And these assertions are based upon what exactly? At issue in the debate is whether or not there was an inclination toward sin within Adam that was part of who he was when he was created. Your responses seem to presume the answer to be 'Yes' absent any basis for that conclusion.
You insist that the text refers to a moral quality.....how do you acount for Satan in that equation?......Rather....if the text refers to functionality than the designed purpose for the creation...."For the earnest expectation of the creation eagerly waits for the revealing of the sons of God"........ will be met......."Very Good"There must be some text to encourage the reader of Scripture to reject the plain message of Gen 1:31.
Rom8:20 "For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of him who subjected it in hope"Why do you believe that corruption was present in the creation, as it was originally created? What Scripture do you see as teaching more clearly the truth of the condition of the world (including Adam) at the time of creation?
Rom8:21 "Because the creation itself also will be delivered from the bondage of corruption..."Please, if you know of such a text, direct us to it, or to one that requires that we necessarily conclude that there must have been corruption within that which God create and declared to be very good.
Answered above.......I would be interested to see which text you will bring to bear in support of your assertion that Gen1:31 must be interpreted in a strictly moral sense.Your assertion regarding functionality is only valid if something outside of the text of Gen 1:31 forces a secondary interpretation of a seemingly simple text. For your position to have any merit there must be a text that clearly indicates that when God said "very good," He obviously meant something other than a the plain literal sense. Bring that clearer text to bear upon your argument.
moonbeam said:Your presumtions are incorrect..........Adam had the ability to sin, an ability he chose to exercise
moonbeam said:You insist that the text refers to a moral quality.....how do you acount for Satan in that equation?
moonbeam said:Rather....if the text [of Gen 1:31] refers to functionality than the designed purpose for the creation...."For the earnest expectation of the creation eagerly waits for the revealing of the sons of God"........ will be met......."Very Good"
Rom8:20 "For the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly, but because of him who subjected it in hope"
Rom8:21 "Because the creation itself also will be delivered from the bondage of corruption..."
Answered above.......I would be interested to see which text you will bring to bear in support of your assertion that Gen1:31 must be interpreted in a strictly moral sense.
Exactly. Rom 9:1-5 "I tell the truth in Christ, I do not lie, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Spirit, (2) that I have great heaviness and continual pain in my heart. (3) For I myself was wishing to be accursed from Christ for my brothers, my kinsmen according to the flesh, (4) who are Israelites; to whom belong the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the Law, and the service of God, and the promises; (5) whose are the fathers, and of whom is the Christ according to flesh, He being God over all, blessed forever. Amen."The question in v19 is raised based upon foregoing teaching
I agree, but Paul uses this in a specific context where he addresses the whole issue of the Israelites that do not want to accept the fact that Gentiles are also welcome in God's kingdom. In this context, "his will" is "boulema" not "thelo," in other words, it refers to his "purpose" (to bring te gospel to the Gentiles also).The question who can resist his will, is a general who, and applies to any human being.
So you do agree that the whole issue of the Gentiles who is also welcome in God's kingdom is being addressed in Rom 9-11?Thus the ultimate and definitive salvation verse of the entire NT (Rom 10:9), applicable to all human beings, occurs smack bang in the middle of this Jew-Gentile contrastive section.
Well, on this point I agree that "Jews" was not the appropriate term. I should have said "Israelites."Jacob was not a Jew when he was chosen. He founded the Jewish race through his bearing of 12 sons. Before he was born, he was loved (v11), and loved as an individual. Israel was first and foremost an individual.
Philip dT said:Exactly. Rom 9:1-5 "I tell the truth in Christ, I do not lie, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Spirit, (2) that I have great heaviness and continual pain in my heart. (3) For I myself was wishing to be accursed from Christ for my brothers, my kinsmen according to the flesh, (4) who are Israelites; to whom belong the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the Law, and the service of God, and the promises; (5) whose are the fathers, and of whom is the Christ according to flesh, He being God over all, blessed forever. Amen."
What is Paul talking about here? He is talking about the fact that he is in continual pain. Why? Because there were Israelites who thought that God's grace was only for them. That is why he says in verse 6: "not all those of Israel are Israel." He shows through Rom 9-11 that God's grace and the gospel has come to the gentiles also, and that it is God's sovereign choice to do so. So, I agree that the matter of Gentiles is not introduced in verse 30. Verse 30 only sums up what has been discussed previously. This matter is plain and simple and does not need any special knowledge to see.
Philip dT said:I agree, but Paul uses this in a specific context where he addresses the whole issue of the Israelites that do not want to accept the fact that Gentiles are also welcome in God's kingdom. In this context, "his will" is "boulema" not "thelo," in other words, it refers to his "purpose" (to bring te gospel to the Gentiles also).
Philip dT said:So you do agree that the whole issue of the Gentiles who is also welcome in God's kingdom is being addressed in Rom 9-11?
Adam sinned because he was designed to sin.........how else could he of sinned if God the Father had not decreed that he sin?........if Christ is ordained a propitiation for our sins from the foundation of the world than so also the reasons why he must be made that propitiation, must themselves have been ordained also from the foundation of the world......sin exists because the Father desired that it exist...so that His purposes are brought to fruition......Adams flesh responded to the commandment of God the same way ours does, by desiring, willing and choosing that which is prohibited by Gods law....hence Adam ate the fruit offered to him, knowingly and willingly.....and that he did so was Gods intention and design.....Adams experience was of a enviroment where "for were there is no law there is no transgression" to one which had changed to "I was alive once without the law......but when the commandment came....sin revived....and I died' Adam became cognisant of the fact that he was a sinner..... that is....that he WAS a sinner.msortwell said:My point is that Adam was not created with an inclination to sin. Why do you speak of being created with an ability to sin? It would be absurd to claim that he was created without the ability to sin, for he did sin. I see no evidence in Scripture that even hints that Adam was created predisposed/inclined to sin.
We know that the angels shouted for joy at the foundation of the world, and that the angels that did not sin with Satan were themselves "elect" and chosen in Christ.... as we are ourselves... in Christ.....Satan certainly sinned before Adam, as his heart was bent on seducing Adam through Eve while Adam was still "innocent" that is to say, had yet to become aware of the fact that he was a sinner.....did Satan sin prior to Gen1:31?....possible....but hard to prove if he did....or didn'tIs there Scripture that indicates that Satan had already sinned/fallen when God made the observation in Gen 1:31? I don't recall any. If you are aware of Scripture which establishes the time of Satan's sin (relative to the creation of Adam, and the Adam's subsequent sin) point it out please.
Exactly....God declares it "very good".....cognisant of the fact that Satan will rebel and cause Adam to sin and all that follows etc.I am averse to placing any type of qualifier on God's unqualified statement. He declared that the creation was very good - not simply very good morally, not just very good functionally. He declared it to be very good period.
Your assesment is based upon your understanding that "good" must equate to the abscence of evil.....rather than "good" equating to that which is in accordance with Gods will.My position is that the natural, straight forward, interpretation of Gen 1:31 is that God is making an unqualified / absolute assessment and declaration of the goodness of His creation. He saw nothing evil in what He created.
No limitations of the "goodness" of God are intended or envisioned....Christ himself, and our glorification in Him, is included in the "goodness" spoken of by God.....He is ordained to be the propitiation for our sins....we must have sins that he may be the propitiation for them....we must sin...and we did...in Adam....that Christ may be Glorified to the praise of God the Father.It seems to me that the burden of proof lies upon any that would place a limitation upon the "goodness" upon the world, as created, when God Himself expressed not such limitation.
There is no reason to assume that.......the moral component of the creation and the presence of sin is embraced as a subset of the whole "Creation" and included in the Functionality applied to the assesment "very good"It is not impossible to interpret 1:31 as referring to only to Functionality. But to do so we must conclude that it cannot refer to morality as well.
If the assesment "very good" was to be understood as a moral assesment primarily, it does seem to be very short sighted and a some what naive assesment in hindsight......considering Gods foresight?That conclusion must be driven by something external to Gen 1:31. What is it in the Scriptures that shapes your understanding of Gen 1:31.
Rather than showing the abscence of evil..... it reveals the prescence of evil....why was he disobedient?Relative to why I would conclude that Gen 1:31 includes a proclamation regarding the moral goodness (or more precisely an absence of evil) I would offer the following.
Rom 5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.(KJV)
Thats right...we are sinners...Adam found that out the same way we did...when God revealed it to him/us.....But no charge of wrong doing can be brought against God......the Holy One of Isreal cannot be charged with unrighteousness.....not because he can do no wrong....but because what ever He does IS righteous...as He is RighteousThis text states clearly that it was because of what Adam committed (his actions) that rendered all of humanity sinners. Our sin guilt was not received because we received from him a common nature or a common inclination. Our sin guilt was received because he committed sin. If Adam was born with a propensity or an inclination to sin as part of his nature, then we would inherit that nature and God would be the reason that Adam was a sinner, and the reason that we, his descendents are sinners.
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