I don't know if this ever came up on CF but
should baptism be by immersion only?
should baptism be by immersion only?
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I don't know if this ever came up on CF but
should baptism be by immersion only?
I don't know if this ever came up on CF but
should baptism be by immersion only?
Hello Prophecykid!
Have you really ever given any thought, to the water baptisms as performed today? Isn't it true, that Johns water baptism was only for the Jews under the old law covenant? Isn't it also true, that the baptisms that the Christ was foretold to do, began after his ascension to the right hand of his Father? The first Baptism that Jesus did, was done at Pentecost, where no water at all was used, to do that baptism! It was all done by Holy Spirit and fire, as foretold he would do. Read the account in Acts 2 you will see what I'm saying is correct. All the foretold Baptisms that Jesus was to perform, there is no mention of any water being used. It was by Holy Spirit, or Holy Spirit and fire. Never, though, any mention of any water being used in the baptisms that Jesus was to do. The Apostle Paul was Apostle to the Nations, and he himself said that Jesus never sent him to do any baptising in water. {1 Corinthians 1:17} The Nations was not under the Mosaic law, so there was no need to bapitise them in the water of Johns Baptism, because, not being under that law could not sin while under it; and that was the main thrust of Johns Baptism; for them to gain foregiveness for their sins committed while under that law, and to recognise the true Messiah.
That is the only acceptable baptism there is now, because there's only one acceptable baptism today. If its not done by the Christ from the invisible heavens, then one isn't baptised at alll; because the Christ is the only one to do it now; there is no other way acceptable to God. Water baptism was only for the Jews, and for no one else! That's the truth of it Prophecykid. Copycat
And concerning baptism, baptize this way: Having first said all these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living water. But if you have no living water, baptize into other water; and if you cannot do so in cold water, do so in warm. But if you have neither, pour out water three times upon the head into the name of Father and Son and Holy Spirit. But before the baptism let the baptizer fast, and the baptized, and whoever else can; but you shall order the baptized to fast one or two days before.
I actually started a thread of my own on this subject here. I also believe that baptism should be by immersion only. Baptize, the greek word which the english word baptism comes from, means to immerse or dip. There is all evidence in the bible which shows the baptism was done by immersion. There is no evidence to show that baptism was done by sprinkling, yet so many people believe that it is right.
Some people just shrug it off and say that it does not matter whether it is by immersion or not, baptism does not really matter. Well it does to God and it should be done by immersion.
I know that this is the common answer, but apparently it is not correct.That is what baptisim means.
I know that this is the common answer, but apparently it is not correct.
I was told it also means wash.
So, what do you do in the case of a death bed confession/conversion? Some churches say you are not truly saved unless you have been baptised, but if you are about to breathe your last there may not be time to fill the bathtub and dunk you in it. Do you walk out of the hospital room and say to the family
"Sorry, but Claude was that close. We just couldn't get him under the water before he died."
Do we have any examples when they were dipped?You can look to the bible and see how baptisim is done. Do we ever have an example of baptisim being done without people being dipped? This brings us back to tradition versus the bible.
Do we have any examples when they were dipped?
Being in water and having it poured would be immersion, but not submersionMark 1:
9And it came to pass in those days, that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized of John in Jordan.
10And straightway coming up out of the water, he saw the heavens opened, and the Spirit like a dove descending upon him:
The bible says that Jesus came up out of the water. Now I guess we can speculate if you like and say that He could have simply been standing in the water while John sprinkled Him, but than I doubt that it would be called baptisim.
The word is being used for a reason. Baptisim symbolizes our death, burial, and resurrection with Christ. You don't get that with a sprinkling.
Being in water and having it poured would be immersion, but not submersion
I don't see any reason why it should be.
Jesus wasn't baptised by total immersion, and his baptism is the model for Christian baptism.
The word doesn't mean total immersion.
And there are no explicit instructions in the New Testament other than that water be used and the name of Jesus or of the Father, Son, and HG be invoked.
We were therefore buried with him through baptism into death in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too may live a new life.That does not symbolize the death, burial, and ressurection however.
Where does the bible teach that Jesus' baptisim wasn't total immersion? [/qutoe]
Where does the Bible teach that we wasn't wearing a tuxedo when John bpatised him in the River Jordan?
The point is that there is no indication that he was baptised by total immersion, so there is no need for us to improvise and call it obligatory.
The word used comes from the greek word baptizo(sp?)
And again, most importantly, the baptisim represents our death, burial, and ressurection with Christ. You don't get that in any other way besides going under.
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