Hello again,
I have some more questions regarding these two passages, Romans 9:22, and 1 Peter 2:8...
How are they to be truly understood? For instance, in Romans 9:22, many Baptists will say that its the people themselves that make themselves vessels of wrath because they do not believe, their basis is on the word "prepared (esv), or fitted (kjv)" and they'll say that this is a Greek Middle-Voice. (I do have some knowledge of Greek, and understand their argument). But, if that is to be taken in a passive sense, wouldn't it make God the preparer? Obviously it's not an active verb. I've yet to find anyone give a proper explanation or exegesis of Romans 9:22. Baptists will come at it with the free-will of man, but still, we know man isn't free.
So could someone properly exegete this passage, and tell me how it is supposed to be properly understood? (Or point me to a good written document explaining it? Hopefully in contemporary English, and not Archaic).
Also, with 1 Peter 2:8, how is that to be properly understood? Are the people appointed or ordained by God to destruction, or are they appointed because they refuse to believe?
And if these passages are to be taken in the sense that they're appointed based on their own disbelieve, then would that not imply that man has a free-will, and can believe? I would hope that God isn't saying one thing in scripture, and doing something else,as in pleading with people to be saved, but they cannot because God hasn't elected them.
I have some more questions regarding these two passages, Romans 9:22, and 1 Peter 2:8...
How are they to be truly understood? For instance, in Romans 9:22, many Baptists will say that its the people themselves that make themselves vessels of wrath because they do not believe, their basis is on the word "prepared (esv), or fitted (kjv)" and they'll say that this is a Greek Middle-Voice. (I do have some knowledge of Greek, and understand their argument). But, if that is to be taken in a passive sense, wouldn't it make God the preparer? Obviously it's not an active verb. I've yet to find anyone give a proper explanation or exegesis of Romans 9:22. Baptists will come at it with the free-will of man, but still, we know man isn't free.
So could someone properly exegete this passage, and tell me how it is supposed to be properly understood? (Or point me to a good written document explaining it? Hopefully in contemporary English, and not Archaic).
Also, with 1 Peter 2:8, how is that to be properly understood? Are the people appointed or ordained by God to destruction, or are they appointed because they refuse to believe?
And if these passages are to be taken in the sense that they're appointed based on their own disbelieve, then would that not imply that man has a free-will, and can believe? I would hope that God isn't saying one thing in scripture, and doing something else,as in pleading with people to be saved, but they cannot because God hasn't elected them.