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Do you have a good link for that?
My view on divorce is that Jesus wasn't making a blanket statement about divorce. During Jesus' day there was a debate about Dt.24:1. That's what he was asked about and that's what Jesus answered. There were other reasons for divorce in Jesus' day and Jesus says nothing about those reasons.
The best view form my studies is David Instone-Brewer's book Divorce and Remarriage in the church. It was online years ago. Here is a one page web site on it.
Divorce & Remarriage - Scripture in Context
Links may get you to the book.
Can you only remarry IF your first spouse dies? What are you thoughts on what this scripture means:
Romans 7:2-3
For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law that binds her to him. So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man.
Divorce and remarriage is yet another example of how relativism has influenced the present day church.
God hates divorce. Jesus preached against divorce. I'll take their Word for it.
In this passage, what is being spoken of is "law". This is NOT a New Testament decree regarding divorce and remarriage, but rather it was Paul talking about the law of the time. Husbands were allowed to divorce their wives, somewhat easily might I add, under the law -- but women were not afforded the same privilege.
This is also a good example of taking scripture OUT OF CONTEXT. If you take the time to read the verse that comes after these verses, you'll find that:
"[4] So, my brothers and sisters, you also died to the law through the body of Christ, that you might belong to another, to him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God.
They are talking to the Jews about transitioning from their old traditions, to Christ.
The verse doesn't imply that someone can't marry another person, but it is actually saying that they CAN marry another person because these laws are NOT the laws of Christ, plain and simple.
Verse 1 stated "Do you not know, brothers and sisters for I am speaking to those who know the lawthat the law has authority over someone only as long as that person lives?" and then we have the passages above, and then verse 4 states "So you also died to the law through the body of Christ"
In other words... the law no longer applies. I wish people would realize what these things are actually saying based on context.
I have commited adultry and was well aware at the time that it was very wrong. I had my reasons and I I will not try and justify them. However, I do know that I have God in my heart and he knrw what I was going through when I commited the sin. I repented for my actions and God has forgiven me.
What's the difference between sex & copulation?
Every human being has a sex, except maybe hermaphrodites. But not everyone with a sex copulates.
Hello, I answer this question in Chapter 5 of my book, "Divorce: In the Bible". One, it is pertenant to those asking about remarriage because Paul says the exact same phrase "bound by law" about a wife's husband in 1 Cor. 7:39 (nkjv, kjv). But, Paul was not talking about divorce in remarriage in 1 Cor. 7:39 but the woman being released from guilt of remarrying another man though he "slept" (died). For, if you remember earlier, in the Gospel a question was purposed to Jesus asking about a woman who had seven husbands (they were all brother's according to the Law of Moses in taking up your brother's wife) and they asked Jesus who's wife will she be in heaven. Jesus said, they will not be married in heaven or still married, but will be like the Angles in heaven. This question in 1 Cor. 7:39 was like it. If your believing husband sleeps (in the Greek meaning her husband was a believer) they thought she was to remain unmarried even though she was a widow because he only slept and never tasted the second death.Can you only remarry IF your first spouse dies? What are you thoughts on what this scripture means:
Romans 7:2-3
For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law that binds her to him. So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man.
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