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right Yunaika....
so...
Matthew 1:20But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as YOUR WOMAN, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.
Ephasis mine.
Still means much the same thing.
so... understanding things "the heavenly way" means ignoring what scripture seems to say? gotcha.Not everything is what is appears to be. The incarnation of the Holy Spirit and the virgin Mary was not as it appeared to be. Jesus was known as Joseph's son, most of his life because it was how it appeared. Mary was put into Joseph's care, not to have a normal, married life . . . Here again, is an earthly understanding. The incarnation and the role of Mary cannot be understood in earthly ways.
Love,
Christina
disagree.Holy Scripture does not contradict the PV of Mary.
same reason why you assert what you believe, I suppose.I know.So, when you ask questions and start threads on this same topic continually, it makes me wonder why?
Really? then how do we read of Jesus brothers and sisters. And how do we reconcile that Jesus was Marys first born son? How does this reconcile with scripture?Holy Scripture does not contradict the PV of Mary.
defend her against what?Mainly, I am here to defend the mother of God, although I fail miserably.
d
I fail to see how that is an attack on Mary. This has been gone over and over and over again, we aren't Mary haters because we don't glorify her with things that Scipture does not attribute to her, and most evidence points away from.
I really hate that line of thinking...
we are not attacking her Character!Misrepresenting someone's character is an attack. It is best just to not say anything about her if you are truly uncertain or wish to understand.
Okay and so if it is better to say nothing about her why is it that in the cc she is talked about as she is when scripture don't back up what is believed about her? Are we to assume that the churchs theory is right and that the scriptures are wrong? Or so some say because it can't mean brothers and sisters it has to mean something else in order to contend with the Mary teachings of the cc? The writer knew the words to write Gods only begotten Son but then meant the same thing when they spoke of Marys first born?Misrepresenting someone's character is an attack. It is best just to not say anything about her if you are truly uncertain or wish to understand.
Amen. For she was truly blessed among women. She was indeed the Mother of Jesus.we are not attacking her Character!
Care to share that record?
right Yunaika....
so...
Matthew 1:20But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as YOUR WOMAN, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.
Ephasis mine.
Still means much the same thing.
Exactly.The Bible never stated that they married; only that they were betrothed.
Jesus was Joseph's son legally because he and the Theotokos were betrothed. Betrothal in the traditional sense entails all the legal aspects and responsibilities of marriage, except for sexual relations.
Furthermore, that Christ was accused of being the result of fornication. Also, for the sake of argument, if the Virgin and St. Joseph were married at some point, it is clear that it happened after Christ's birth; so the flimsy argument that God "decieved" people would apply in either case.
Furthermore, where in the world did you get the idea that God had them get betrothed in order to hide things from Satan?
Because of a misapplied understanding of the word "until" in:Scripture never ONCE says Mary had other children, or that she and Joseph had sexual relations. Why must people continue to say it does?
It never ceases to amaze me how some say scripture either does not mean what it says or it is misapplied or that it could have meant. When we have the Prophetic writings of David stating she did. We have eye witness accounts stating Jesus had brothers and sisters. We have Apostle Paul stating that she did.. But yet this cannot be what it means why? Because someone somewhere has started a belief that Mary was a PV so therefore instead of that being wrong it must be the scriptures and all the eye witness accounts that are wrong. When the bible doesn't state that Mary was a PV..Because of a misapplied understanding of the word "until" in:
[bible]matthew 1:25[/bible]
It is assumed that after Jesus was born, Joseph and Mary started kickin' it.
The Nicene Creed does.It never ceases to amaze me how some say scripture either does not mean what it says or it is misapplied or that it could have meant. When we have the Prophetic writings of David stating she did. We have eye witness accounts stating Jesus had brothers and sisters. We have Apostle Paul stating that she did.. But yet this cannot be what it means why? Because someone somewhere has started a belief that Mary was a PV so therefore instead of that being wrong it must be the scriptures and all the eye witness accounts that are wrong. When the bible doesn't state that Mary was a PV..
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