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Need some help on a few difficult subjects...

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PapaLandShark

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Hi all,
There are two interrelated subjects I'd appreciate some help and thoughts on. I've asked one of the Senior Admin's about this topic and she helped me clarify what I'm trying to get across and suggested that perhaps this would be the best place to post this.

In many places I've seen those who are homosexual treated in an un-Christian way. Even here on this board. Perhaps not surprising, but disturbing to me and something that I myself have been guilty of.

In my searching for answers I ran across this particular site that suggested that perhaps our translations of certain scripture were incorrect. I'm not an expert in the original language/s...I'm barely competent in English in my own estimation.

So I would ask that those of you who can expound on the information in the link below take a look and offer your views:

http://www.freeingthespirit.org/CommentariesJS.htm

Information about the Author can be found here:

http://www.freeingthespirit.org/abouttheauthor.htm

Briefly the author asserts that the scripture in light of context ( and perhaps mistakes in translation) keeps returning to Idolatry...Not homosexuality itself ( if I understand correctly ).

Even if we are to poke holes into this that you could drive a Mack Truck through I keep returning to this:

Mark 12:30
AND YOU SHALL LOVE THE LORD YOUR GOD WITH ALL YOUR HEART, AND WITH ALL YOUR SOUL, AND WITH ALL YOUR MIND, AND WITH ALL YOUR STRENGTH.'
Mark 12:31
"The second is this, 'YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF.' There is no other commandment greater than these."

How can we explain our attitudes in the face of these words?
 

filosofer

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Here is an approach that seems balanced in dealing with the sin and being compassionate and active in ministry from a Christian perspective:


Exodus
 
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PapaLandShark

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Hi filosopher,
Thank you for the link. I'll be sure to check it out. I think that I should clarify a bit though.

I'm not trying to change minds here. I am asking that those who can actually read and translate the original texts of the scripture take a look at the information presented by the author above ( I've followed it as far as I can ) and offer thier thoughts on the translations. I'm also asking for some self examination and discussion on our attitudes in the face of the above scripture.

It is also not my intent to turn this into a debate so I pray that it will not stray into such.

Thanks all!
 
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MAC

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See if this gives you some help..

Psa 19:7 The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.
Rom 12:2 And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.
 
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filosofer

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Okay, here is a look at the first "proof text":

Christian Forums: 12-23-2004

Free the Spirit - - Evaluation

This is a case of misrepresenting history. We have manuscripts prior to the time Philo, namely the Dead Sea Scrolls, that have the same statements. The person is reading back into textual/manuscript history what she wants to find.


Not accurate. The person is mixing two different things: the text in the Hebrew/Greek vs. translating that text into English. Because there are several different English translations trying to present what the Hebrew/Greek manuscripts actually do have does not destroy or make "uncertain" what God said.

The first rule of hermeneutics is that passages in scripture must be kept in proper context.

No, context is an important rule of hermeneutics, but the first rule of hermeneutics is to take the words in their normally understood manner.


Here is the real agenda. Note that the author is stating up front that she can differ with any scholar or a consensus of scholars and be legitimate ("Don't confuse me with facts, I have my interpretation and God approves of it!").


Note that the person uses her own definition to justify what she wants to prove.

-----–
Note the number of assumptions, and "perhaps" and "apparently" that forms the basis of her argument that Gen. 19 is not about homosexuality.
 
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PapaLandShark

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filosofer: I did see some of the weaknesses in the material presented. Which is why I brought this here. What then of the translations? I don't read this as trying to "destroy or make uncertain" what God said. I see it as a questioning of how the originals were translated into English. God makes no mistakes. We humans do.

MAC: Where did you find that qoute? Regardless


Thank you both! This bears, as usual, more study and prayer on my part. I appreciate you taking the time.
 
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filosofer

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I can tell you that within conservative Lutheran denominations, doctrine is established based on the original language texts, never a translation, although we would look at the LXX to see how the Hebrew was translated into Greek before the time of Christ. (Not sure how other church bodies handle this.) Thus, if we take a stand on "justification/righteousness" it is based on DIKAIOUSUNH (and related cognates) in the Greek, not on the Latin word IUSTITIA, nor on the German word RECHTFERTIGUNG. Likewise, if I were studying only in English, I would look at translations other than KJV/NIV, for instance, NAS, NKJV, REB, NAB, NJB, GW, TaNaKH, NRSV, CEV, TEV, NCB, etc.

Thus, if her point is to challenge an English translation she can. But notice that she really isn't evaluating a translation, even admitting that she is not qualified to do it; rather she is challenging two translations but only on a specific set of texts that happen to be her "justification" for her lifestyle. Even more, she has not really dealt with the Hebrew and Greek denotative nor conotative senses of the words.
 
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MAC

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Hi PapaLandShark

I took those from John Gills
 
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Dmckay

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These two quotes from the About the Author page are all you need to know. This woman is self-professed in her lack of formal training in Scripture. Further she is ordained to the ministry of the Universal Fellowship of Metropolitan Community Churches a group that is primarily made up of practicing homosexuals. I would think right off, that would indicate a bias to her interpretation.

Then we have her explaination that her approach to Scripture is more like mining a Gold or diamond mine. "Not every stone taken from a mine is either diamond or gold, but that which is precious must be extracted from that which is not." This is an admission that she picks and chooses that which she thinks is valuable and rejects the rest. Basing her decision on, "While scripture tells us that everything in it is there for our edification, we must remember that it speaks of scripture in the original languages." But she admits she has no ability with those original languages, so she isn't qualified to be making any kind of interpretation.

Remember, Peter said that "No prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation. For prophecy never had it's origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God, as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit." There is only one interpretation to any portion of Scripture, after the interpretation is determined there may be many applications. You can't Biblically force Scripture to say what you want. This site and their teachers are False teachers.
 
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Crazy Liz

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Dmckay said:
These two quotes from the About the Author page are all you need to know. ....
I didn't read that article, but agree that the background and biases of the author are important in evaluating their opinions. With that in mind, I think you are likely to find this article by Walter Wink more scholarly and objective.
 
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Dmckay

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Crazy Liz said:
I didn't read that article, but agree that the background and biases of the author are important in evaluating their opinions. With that in mind, I think you are likely to find this article by Walter Wink more scholarly and objective.
I read the article at the link that you posted, and I agree with you that it is a bit more scholarly in it's approach, in that the author hides his perconceived outcome better. However, he dismisses, what God has to say on the subject of homosexuality by saying that the authors were writing from their ignorance of human sexuality, and unscientific understanding of the nature of human sperm.

I don't know about you, but I happen to believe the Bible when it states that, "But know this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture is a matter of one's own interpretation, 21for no prophecy was ever made by an act of human will, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God. God's Holy Spirit moved these men as they penned the Words of Scripture so that the Bible and all that it teaches is directly given from the mind and knowledge of the Creator. He is the one who declares homosexuality an abomination indicative of a reprobate mind.
 
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Mustaphile

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One might question what prophecy has to do with this subject though. Prophecy is a thing distinct from other scripture.
 
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Dmckay

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Mustaphile said:
One might question what prophecy has to do with this subject though. Prophecy is a thing distinct from other scripture.
Prophecy, as used in this passage in Peter is in it's original use. Forth-telling the Word of God. This was the primary calling of the original Olt Testament prophets. It was only as that Word which was "forth-told" to the people of Israel that the "foretelling" or future aspect of the Word came into play. For example: The prophet is told to tell the people that if they don't repent of their idolatry the Lord will send a famine to consume the land. By telling them that The Lord has called for them to repent of their idolatry, the prophet has spoken forth or "forth-told" the Word of God. The future aspect is, if you don't repent this will happen.

When Peter was moved by the Holy Spirit to write that No prophecy of Scripture is of one's own interpretation, he was speaking about the inspiration of Scripture as the writer or prophet "forthtelling" God's message on a topic. It's God's message, and God's meaning, you aren't to decide on your own what it means, you have to determine God's meaning.
 
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