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It is generally recognized that they do not. For example, Catholics do not recognize Mormon baptism because it is not Trinitarian, and is therefore not a baptism into the Trinitarian God. The Mormon god is a very radical departure from classical theism and Christian theology.Presumably Catholics and Mormons believe in the same deity
Again, "without consent" it not a context in which rape is permissible. You are playing word games. The definition:A: '...certain actions are intrinsically right or wrong, regardless of context, culture, or circumstances.'
B: Yet when I asked you if you'd given due regard to the context, you answered 'Yes'. You gave the specific context. Quote: 'She refused consent'.
You are claiming, "The act of rape is not wrong in the context where it is consensual, therefore it is not absolute." This is clearly sophistry. The definition is saying that the moral absolutist thinks there are acts that are always wrong, including in every context. So if someone thinks an act such as rape is always wrong, including within every context, then they are a moral absolutist. That's what the definition says.Absolute morality is the ethical belief that certain actions are intrinsically right or wrong, regardless of context...
And yet they each use the same Bible, though they each have supplemental material, too.It is generally recognized that they do not. For example, Catholics do not recognize Mormon baptism because it is not Trinitarian, and is therefore not a baptism into the Trinitarian God. The Mormon god is a very radical departure from classical theism and Christian theology.
If I can jump in, the definition of consent can be verrry nebulous. How many drinks does it take before someone can no longer consent, even if they appear to be conscious?You are claiming, "The act of rape is not wrong in the context where it is consensual, therefore it is not absolute." This is clearly sophistry.
Correct! The context is included in the term. Just like it is with murder.Again, "without consent" it not a context in which rape is permissible.
No. The fact that rape was seen as allowed at some point means that moral vary over time and are not absolute.But if there is a crime of rape between husband and wife then it would be absolute? Isn't that what you are saying?
I would think rape is as close to a moral absolute is you can get. But as there have been people who disagree we cannot say that it is truly absolute.Ahh, there's the rub. What you mean based on your posts is, "I'm still left with trying to interpret it". Even in the act of rape, you need interpretation!
Is an apology forthcoming?
I ask again, are atheists who claim that even the morality of rape is in need of interpretation think that no absolute "rules exist at all". If so then by your insight that makes them closet sociopaths.
And that law was there because people thought it was moral.You confuse morality as being equivalent to legality.
I would think rape is as close to a moral absolute is you can get. But as there have been people who disagree we cannot say that it is truly absolute.
So, as long as there is , for instance, a Genghis Khan, rape and pillage cannot be absolutely immoral.And that law was there because people thought it was moral.
Not quite. It means that there is no objective morality.So, as long as there is , for instance, a Genghis Khan, rape and pillage cannot be absolutely immoral.
Yes. The overton window is a thing. But if moral absolutes exists, is the overton window is nothing more than a determination of what is considered to be subjectively popular at that point in time.No. The fact that rape was seen as allowed at some point means that moral vary over time and are not absolute.
You are claiming, "The act of rape is not wrong in the context where it is consensual, therefore it is not absolute." This is clearly sophistry.
You're missing the point. @Bradskii is not offering a special definition of consent. He is saying, "Everyone will agree that the act of rape is not wrong in the context where it is consensual, regardless of the particular way in which they conceive of consent."If I can jump in, the definition of consent can be verrry nebulous. How many drinks does it take before someone can no longer consent, even if they appear to be conscious?
Read my post again. Or at least try.Correct! The context is included in the term. Just like it is with murder.
I'd suggest that you quote me directly rather than misrepresent my position. Thanks in advance......and his reasoning is that such a person will agree with his (paraphrased) claim, "The act of rape is not wrong in the context where it is consensual, therefore it is not absolute."
Your sophistry could be applied to anything:
- Interlocutor: I am a moral absolutist because I think rape is always wrong.
- Bradskii: No you're not, because you don't think consensual rape is wrong.
- Interlocutor: I am a moral absolutist because I think murder is always wrong.
- Bradskii: No you're not, because you don't think murdering a peach is wrong.
- Interlocutor: I am a moral absolutist because I think the Holocaust is always wrong.
- Bradskii: No you're not, because you don't think a Holocaust where no one dies or is harmed is wrong.
- Interlocutor: I am a moral absolutist because I think slavery is always wrong.
- Bradskii: No you're not, because you don't think voluntary and temporary slavery for predetermined wages is wrong.
This is the level of sophistry that is always present in your "posts."
...will be exhibited when you finish this statement:the "reasoning" you are resorting to...
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