bulldog86 said:
According to the Constitution, we are "endowed by our Creator with certain unalienable rights." Now I'm not saying that "Creator" means the "Christian" God, but I AM saying that our founding fathers understood that if they said that people were "endowed by this government" with the rights... problems could ensue. If the only entity giving rights is the government of man, then the government of man can take away those rights just as easily. However, if they attributed the gift of those rights to God, then, in theory, no government can take them away.
Sorry, but the Constitution most certainly does NOT say ""endowed by our Creator with certain unalienable rights." That is found in the Declaration of Independence written by a certain Thomas Jefferson, who was NOT a Christian (by today's standards), nor were John Adams, Benjamin Franklin, and probably George Washington. They were all deists, believing in a single god who created the universe with natural laws, then left it alone. Jefferson originally wrote that quote to say among those rights were "life, liberty, and property," by that last part got revised by the other founders to be "the pursuit of happiness."
However, you are correct in that the founders saw that we had unalienable rights that transcended civil law. But that is not to say they all based the source of those rights on the same supernatural being by any stretch, nor did they believe those rights were absolute. (i.e. clearly one convicted of a crime could loose their right to liberty.)
When did I ever say that our law should be based on Biblical morality? I NEVER brought government into the picture. YOU did. All I am saying is that my morals are based on a solid foundation. This isn't a holier than thou thing. I don't know; maybe I'm coming across that way. I don't mean to. I just happen to be more happy with a solid, unshakeable moral code.
Fine. Then cut to the chase and tell us WHERE CAN WE FIND THIS "SOLID, UNSHAKEABLE MORAL CODE?" Stop beating around the bush, and get specific.
These inalieable rights were NOT found in the bible, but in reason. They were believed to be self evident, natural laws, although there was certainly debate as to what they were. Don't think for a minute everyone agreed on which rights were unalienable, nor should you believe we would all agree today.
I didn't assert anything. I just said that the theory makes some sense (meaning, other atheists have said that that is why we have consistent morals throughout history). You haven't seen a historical account of a society degrading morally? Babylonians... started out being generous to conquered nations but gradually grew more hostile and became somewhat vicious before being conquered...
Got anything more recent than a 3000 year old biblical story? Generous to conquered nations? Isn't the conquering thing a problem to begin with? Would it be morrally acceptable for China to "conquer" America, just so long as they were generous invaders? And I'm not really even sure were this is going anyway. What was the point?
Besides, the consistency of morality throughout time, places and cultures can be attributed to any number of factors, both supernatural and natural. I don't see how you can point to a specific supernatural source for this without basing it on a particular religious belief. But then again, perhaps you're not.
Slavery... the problem with your argument is that Biblical slavery is more akin to servitude. Most "slavery" in Scripture was for a period of maybe seven years for the repayment of a large family debt. In other words, Bob takes his men and saves Joe's life from Frank's soldiers. Joe's son, Joe Jr. is then sent to Bob to work for seven years to repay the debt. Yes, submit to civil law, not because it doesn't matter, but because God puts authority in place. HOWEVER. Once a government or authority violates the law of God, then they forfeit that authority and the order to follow that authority is negated. A child is free to make his own choices when he is free form his parents and is his own person. But is entirely under the authority of his parents until then (unless, again, they violate God's law).
The 7 year rule only applied to male, Isrealite slaves. If a master gave the slave a wife, and the wife bore daughters, for example, the master could keep the wife and daughters as slaves forever. Non Jews could certainly be slaves for life. (see Deuteronomy 15:12-18; Exodus 21:7; Leviticus 25:44-46
That is slavery, my friend, NOT servitude, so I'm missing your point.
How does "God put authority in place" with a democratic election? Does god force the right people in the right states to vote a certain way to ensure a certain outcome." Did god intend for Bush to become president, but not get the most votes? This is really shaky ground.
That's funny... I don't seem to ever recall saying that we should base our government entirely on "my relgious interpretations." Weird. So is it that I just forgot or that you made a large assumption about what I was saying? (My vote goes to option two
).
Ok, then I suppose you think our source should be Allah, right? or Vishnu? Who, then?
Sucessful in the world... nation of Israel. Became a world power under a God-led monarchy... massively wealthy and hugely powerful militarily. Started disobeying God, went massively downhill, split in two... got conquered. I can't recall it ever being TRIED other than that...
So we should aspire to a monarchy? Based on what? Oh yes, a very specific God. Great nation to be in, unless you were one of those slaves, of course. And how were non-Jews treated? With respect and dignity? I'm not sure I follow you.
Let's look at another nation...Rome. Totally pagan, became "massively wealthy and hugely powerful militarily" to a degree that dwarfed Isreal in its heyday. Reigned for 400 years, Constantine turned the Rome Christain, and the Empire began its decline within 50 years. Shouldn't the Roman Empire have become even greater once converting to Christianity using your reasoning? Hmmmmmmmmm.