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MadFingerPainter said:Through one man's offence, all mankind are exposed to eternal condemnation. But the grace and mercy of God, and the free gift of righteousness and salvation, are through Jesus Christ, as man: yet the Lord from heaven has brought the multitude of believers into a more safe and exalted state than that from which they fell in Adam. This free gift did not place them anew in a state of trial, but fixed them in a state of justification, as Adam would have been placed, had he stood. Notwithstanding the differences, there is a striking similarity. As by the offence of one, sin and death prevailed to the condemnation of all men, so by the righteousness of one, grace prevailed to the justification of all related to Christ by faith. Through the grace of God, the gift by grace has abounded to many through Christ; yet multitudes choose to remain under the dominion of sin and death, rather than to apply for the blessings of the reign of grace. But Christ will in nowise cast out any who are willing to come to him.
commentary can be found here: http://www.ccel.org/ccel/henry/mhcc.xxxvii.v.html
it appears that they are referring to the "many" as being mankind.
MadFingerPainter said:because all mankind is exposed to sin through adams sin. and many are the ones that will come unto condemnation because they did not repent and turn to Christ.
RGL1 said:Romans 5[FONT="]
[/FONT]5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man's obedience many will be made righteous
Who is the word "many" refering to in the Ro 5 text?
Why didn't Paul say in Adam all instead of many?TruthMiner said:The idea here is not to contrast "many" with "all" but to illustrate how "many" resulted from "one." In other words, it illustrates the muliplicity that results from singularity.
One man (Adam) - many sinners
One man (Christ) - many righteous
ALL in Adam are sinners. ALL in Christ are righteous. But that is not Paul's point here. His point is that plurality resulted from singularity
Hi RGL 1, was the word "many" translated from the same word in the greek both times?RGL1 said:Romans 5[FONT="]
[/FONT]5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man's obedience many will be made righteous
Who is the word "many" refering to in the Ro 5 text?
That's a good idea. Please check the Greek. Both times the word "many" comes from the same Greek word.timlamb said:Hi RGL 1, was the word "many" translated from the same word in the greek both times?
This would seem to be a loaded universalist gun; many, meaning mankind, have obliged in their sin, but have failed to oblige the righteousness made possible through Christ. It must be read in the context of scripture.
RGL1 said:Romans 5[FONT="]
[/FONT]5:19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so also by one Man's obedience many will be made righteous
Who is the word "many" refering to in the Ro 5 text?
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