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Even if you know they're not married isn't it still crossing a line?
I mean Jesus focuses specifically on adultery in those verses but wouldn't fornication in their heart be just as much of a sin?
It still objectifies, and it still makes a person see women as a whole with less respect than they should.
At what point does God become angered with David and Bathsheba?“But so-and-so imagined sexual relations with the attractive woman, and God was angered”
Regarding Thought 2 in the lists, do you believe such falls under the condemnation of Matthew 5:21-26 and of Matthew 5:27-30? Also, I may need clarification on how strong the meaning is of "I desire to..." in Thought 3. Does it mean, "It'd sure be nice if I could..." (softer), or, "If an opportunity arises, I will..." (stronger). Thanks!First off, I think you’re missing a step in each of those:
1. "Ugh, he's angering!"
2. "Ugh, he's angering! Imagine how good it'd feel to just pound the life outta this fool right now!"
3. "Ugh, he's angering! I desire to murder him."
4. "Ugh, he's angering! I know he goes to location A at 8:00 PM. I'll go there tonight and kill him."
Similarly, what thought(s) below would you say fall(s) under what Matthew 5:27-30 condemns?
1. "Wow, she's attractive!"
2. "Wow, she's attractive! Imagine if she were in my bedroom, and..."
3. "Wow, she's attractive! I desire to entice her to having sex with me outside of marriage..."
4. "Wow, she's attractive! I know her husband's traveling. I'll go to her house tonight and..."
The desire to murder someone, or the desire to entice a woman into sex outside of marriage comes before the concrete planning of it; that is also sin as well.
Now, as for your point about anger… I will repost what I said to another commenter:
Anger and desire are treated very differently in Scripture… For instance, God doesn't condemn righteous anger in the moment, but he does condemn holding on to anger which will then turn into bitterness and holding grudges.
"Be ye angry, and sin not: let not the sun go down upon your wrath" Ephesians 4:26
So, we ought to be filled with righteous anger when a person violates the God’s laws, especially when they hurt the innocent or threaten our families. But the point is we cannot hold on to anger. We must let it go.
Desire itself is not sinful. Desire only becomes sinful lust/covetousness when we have a wrong desire, when we desire to take or use someone or something in an unlawful manner that is sinful desire.
So again, the Bible treats anger differently than desire: It tells us not to hold on to anger, but it never tells us we cannot hold on to desire. As long as a natural and good desire like sexual desire does not turn into a sinful covetous desire (e.g. to entice a woman into having sex with us outside of marriage), then there is no problem.
It would be beneficial for a informed, and constructive dialogue as to what the Bible says if you were to articulate your views clearly.
Here’s the passage of your prose presently under discussion.
Which means, absolutely nothing as it could mean anything given the ambiguity. It is a nightmare to figure out what could possibly mean, in your mind, the phrase of “our desires are turned inward, rather than outward” and “we are seeking to gratify ourselves and failing to live for the sake of our neighbor.”
Oh you think the phrase to be unambiguous? Really?
So, let’s begin. First, the phrase has long been debated as to the extent of its meaning. Jesus clarified by way of example but may not have been in anyway exhaustive.
We have plenty of Biblical examples where “love your neighbor as yourself” doesn’t conflict with certain institutions and practices we today consider immoral and unloving.
One such institution is chattel slavery. Whatever the great command “love your neighbor as yourself” meant and means, it doesn’t prohibit chattel slavery and other kinds of slavery. Why? Because the Law did not prohibit slavery but instead acknowledged and permitted its existence. Leviticus 25:44-46. Exodus 21:2-6 (There are more verses pertaining to slavery).
Now, some in Judaism have construed the OT command of love your neighbor as yourself to apply only to Jews/Hebrews. “Lev 19:17 You shall not hate your brother in your heart; you shall reprove your kinsman, and not incur guilt because of him. 19:18 You shall not take vengeance or bear a grudge against any of your people, but you shall love your neighbor like yourself; I am YHWH.”
Then there’s the issue of what the word “kamokha” means. Does it mean “like yourself” or “one who is like you”?
Now, I have an understanding of what the phrase likely could mean, based on the research. Do you?
This is the go-to passage for people to condemn “lust,” which our modern ears automatically equate to mean “sexual fantasy.” However, I think taking a closer look at the words reveals that this passage has been long-misinterpreted, used to shame people (especially young men) for any and all sexual thoughts. And as we should know well by now, just because mainstream Christianity says something, doesn't mean they're right; we ultimately need to look to Scripture and make sure we're properly understanding the meaning of the words.
I will invariably be accused by some of “trying to justify sin.” But as Paul said in Romans 7:7, “I had not known sin, but by the law.” We have to know what God's Word actually condemns. So, how do we find out? The answer is actually in the same verse:
"What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.” Romans 7:7 KJV
First off, it is worth noting that many modern translations actually use “covet” for the first word instead of “lust,” so that the verse appears to refer only to covetousness. (This is an example where the KJV really shines.)
For example:
“For I would not have known what coveting really was if the law had not said, ‘You shall not covet.’” NIV
“I would never have known that coveting is wrong if the law had not said, ‘You must not covet.’” NLT
“For I would not have known what it is to covet if the law had not said, ‘You shall not covet.’” ESV
“For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, ‘You shall not covet.’” NKJV
The reason these modern versions do this is because both instances are actually the same word in Greek: epithumeó. However, this misses the essential point worth being aware of, which is that epithumeó is also the exact same “lust” word used by Jesus in the Matthew passage.
So, the Bible is very clear on this: The Bible tells us that epithumeó lusting is the same thing as the coveting of the OT. Therefore in order to understand what Jesus meant in Matthew 5:27-28, we need to go back to the context of the OT and discover what exactly coveting meant. In other words, when Paul tells us in Romans 7:7 to look at the 10th commandment to understand what Matthew 5 lust is, that is where we need to look.
The context in which desire is used in the 10th commandment, helps us understand exactly what kind of desire God is condemning. When condemning covetousness in the 10th commandment (Exodus 20:17), God mentions things like a man's house and his cattle, alongside things like his wife and his servants. Well, if God was simply saying it was wrong to find a man's house desirable, then that would mean that no person could ever sell another person their house, and real estate transactions would be sinful. If God was saying a man could not find another man's cattle desirable, then farmers would go out of business because they could not buy or sell cattle. So, we know God is not condemning a person finding things that belong to another, desirable.
Instead, what God is condemning is the strong desire (to the point of planning) to wrongly use or possess something that does not belong to us. He is condemning thoughts of plotting theft, not mere thoughts of desire. And in the context of sex, he not condemning a man finding a woman sexually desirable, but rather he is condemning a man desiring to seduce/entice a woman into sex outside of marriage. This would apply both to premarital sex and adultery.
Here is a great video to help show you exactly what covetousness is.
So basically, it seems Matthew 5:27-28 isn't just about some guy who is simply fantasizing about a woman, while not having any intent to ever actually seduce her/commit adultery with her. The reason adultery is already a sin in his heart in this passage, is because he's already on the path to adultery; he is coveting her, planning/intending to actually have sex with her. Think David & Bathsheba:
When did David first sin in the Bathsheba story? Was it when he first merely fantasized about her? Or was it when he allowed the fantasies to get out of control and progress to the point that he was actually planning on getting her husband killed, so that he could commit the act of adultery with her? There are three steps to this, not two: 1. The fantasizing 2. The intent/planning to take/possess (coveting) 3. The act of following through with it and seducing her.
#3 is obviously actual adultery. So which one is “committing adultery in his heart”? I would argue that it is clearly #2. #1 was okay, but #2 was where he first ran into trouble with actual sin. Of course you could argue that #2 would have been less likely to happen if he hadn't even done #1. And I suppose that's a possibility, but there are plenty of people out there who engage in #1 on a daily basis and never let it progress to #2. What is a problem for one person, isn't always a problem for another.
So in the Matthew passage, this isn't just some guy having a fantasy; rather, this is a guy who is thinking “My neighbor's wife is hot, and he'll be out of town next week. I must have her; I'm going to seduce her.” Whether or not he goes through with it or succeeds, he has still committed adultery in his heart by starting to set that plan to commit the sin, into motion. But looking at her and having sexual thoughts pop in his head, or even consciously imagining acts with her? It's just not the same thing. Same deal goes for masturbation and fantasy at home; sitting at home imagining sexual acts with a person is nowhere near the level of actually thinking “Ok, I need to go out and actually have premarital/extramarital sex.” (In fact, there are plenty of people who credit fantasy/masturbation with helping prevent them from going out and actually committing fornication/adultery!)
Mainstream Christianity sees Matthew 5:27-28 and rightly hones in on the heart-sin of “committing adultery in one's heart.” But the problem I think is that they mistakenly think the heart-sin is simply “fantasizing,” just because that's what goes through their mind when their modern ears hear the word “lust.” But that just doesn't seem to be the biblical meaning of what Jesus was actually talking about.
Don’t get me wrong, I do think they're right to hone in on the fact that there is a heart-sin, but they're just wrong about what it is: The heart-sin is that the hypothetical guy in this passage is already intending/planning to seduce the woman - not that he is simply having a fantasy about her. The sin of adultery is already in his heart before he even carries out the act. The intent/planning to physically sin, is the heart-sin. The point Jesus was making was that a sin like adultery doesn't just happen spontaneously; you actually plan and intend to do it, in your heart beforehand. And doing so, is wrong. But simply imagining/thinking about an attractive woman, doesn't necessarily lead to you standing at her door to have extramarital sex with her. Lol.
But here's another example: Me thinking about how a cheeseburger would taste really good right now, doesn't mean I'm actually going to even plan to go get one right now—let alone actually go. It just means I'm thinking a cheeseburger would taste good... We can have desires for enjoyable things in life, but we must have self-control and not let the desires progress to the point of planning to/intending to commit the actual sin. (Obviously eating a cheeseburger isn’t a sin, but I hope you get my point.)
Believe me, I'm as conservative of a Christian as they come (I believe the Bible is 100% the Word of God) and used to think all this stuff was sin too... but I've come to the conclusion that Christian culture has artificially made something into a sin, that actually isn't one. Following the Bible is what we are called to do, but there's a problem when the church misinterprets/mistranslates words and then creates false doctrines that lead to Christians feeling guilty and suffering and thinking they can't live up to an ideal that even God never expected us to live up to… And by the way, the Bible even warns against this! Groups of believers in the early church were already starting to twist things to make life even harder on believers - and they were chastised for doing so!
It's all a shame, because if I'm right (I increasingly think I am), then that means many Christians are sadly battling something that isn't even a sin. I went years thinking it was a sin, just bc that is what was taught at church/at my Christian school and because of the common modern understanding of the word “lust”... but when you dig deeper into the biblical meaning of words, it's a whole other story.
In conclusion, this (unfortunately mainstream) idea of repressing sexual fantasies is not biblical, and just leads to plenty of young Christians (especially men) needlessly suffering. Your sex drive is how God designed you; it is not a defect or something that only came about because of the Fall & sin. You were made to have sexual thoughts and fantasies, to help drive you to marriage. Men were made to have a sexual hunger for women and vice versa.
Tl;dr The Bible is not saying that it's a sin to fantasize about a woman; it's saying that it's a sin to think about a woman (particularly a married woman) with the intent to/having a plan to actually seduce her and have extramarital sex with her. That's the reason for the whole “already committed adultery in his heart” thing; the guy is already planning to commit the sin. This isn't just some guy who's thinking “Wow, she's hot; it's fun to imagine what she'd be like in bed”; no, this is a guy who is thinking “My neighbor's wife is hot and he'll be out of town next week. I must have her; I'm going to try and seduce her.”
Here are some links which go much more in-depth, and undoubtedly do a better job of explaining it than me:
Why "Lusting" in Matthew 5:27-28 Doesn't Make All Men Adulterers - Berean Patriot
"Whoever Looks at a Woman With Lust": Misinterpreted Bible Passages #1 | Jason Staples
Sexual Arousal And Fantasy Are Not Sin
Bible Topic Study: Matthew 5:28 Lust and Adultery
Do Not Covet: Is It a Feeling or an Action? - TheTorah.com
I think there is a big difference between appreciating beauty, and sexual fantasy.
I don't believe that sexual urges should be the main driver towards marriage.
The mind is a battleground and a garden for us to keep well tended for Jesus. Sexual fantasy is a weed that needs to be pulled out real quick before it grows into a dominating shade that blocks out the light of Christ.
Alright, then allow me to clarify terms.
Humans are born sinful. To be born sinful means to have concupiscience--passions directed and dominated by sin.
This is what St. Paul refers to when he speaks of "the flesh".
E.g. Ephesians 2:1-3, Galatians 5:24
The words I chose in my language wasn't pillowy purple prose--but deliberate theological wording based upon two thousand years of biblical, traditional, and orthodox Christian teaching.
-CryptoLutheran
According to traditional Christian teaching, at least in the West
According to traditional Christian teaching, at least in the West, human beings inherit Original Sin from Adam and Eve. This Original Sin is present in us as concupiscence--"desire". Selfish desire. It means that the passions, or desires, of the flesh are deformed, misshapen, "depraved"--literally "bent" "crooked" "broken". From the Latin depravare; from the Latin prefix de meaning "completely" and pravus meaning "crooked" or "bent". Hence the root of man's depravity is sin, sinfulness.
The human person born in a state of sinfulness.
The Scriptures which support this include Romans 3:10-18, Romans 3:23, and Romans 5:12.
When I say "our desires are turned inward, rather than outward" I mean that our desire is curved inward upon ourselves, to serve ourselves. The will and desire of fallen man is himself. That is meant by homo incurvatus in se.
Humans are born sinful. To be born sinful means to have concupiscience--passions directed and dominated by sin.
This is what St. Paul refers to when he speaks of "the flesh".”
And the verses do not support your verbiage of “inward.” There’s a reason why certain words have certain meanings. There’s also very good reasons why people, some more than others, carefully choose words to convey what they are saying. Words have a limited range of meaning and the meaning of the words is how communication is possible.
There’s not one word in the Greek used that means anything close to “inward.” None.
“3 Among them we too all previously lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, just as the rest.” No “inward” is involved above. None. Zero. Zilch.
“24 Now those who belong to Christ Jesus crucified the flesh with its passions and desires.”
Again, no Greek word having any meaning of “inward” is used. None.
Those verses do not support your unique, religious belief of “inward.”
To be perfectly frank I am rather taken aback by the hostility with which you chose to respond; and the seeming hostility to what is actually quite rudimentary Christian teaching--at least in the West. Hence my initial responses being somewhat flippant.
Hostility? No, a critical analysis of your personal, religious doctrine of “inward” and observing it doesn’t have any basis in Scripture isn’t “hostility.” It is rather called exposing, rightfully, a view of Scripture which isn’t a correct view of Scripture.
to what is actually quite rudimentary Christian teaching
How quaint. So, I’m to submit to “rudimentary Christian teaching”? No thanks for a few reasons. First, “rudimentary Christian teaching” has historically been used to pervert the meaning of the Bible and deceive many. Yes, as a matter of fact, during the Middle Ages of Europe, the Church exploited the fact the masses couldn’t read Scripture, and the masses accepted whatever the clergy spoon fed them, including false doctrine. Yes, they justified exploitation of the serfs, the Crusades, unquestioned loyalty to the crown, by “rudimentary Christian teaching,” although textually, there was conspicuously a lack of Biblical support for their teaching.
Indeed, Martin Luther repudiated “rudimentary Christian doctrine” as not supported by Scripture.
“[R]udimentary Christian doctrine” has been invoked to justify the murder of other Christians, people of other faiths, and a laundry list of other reprehensible acts.
I start and end with the text of the Bible. All doctrine, teachings, “rudimentary” or otherwise are evaluated, measured, and assessed with the text of the Bible. I couldn’t care less about commonly accepted, rudimentary, widely believed Christian teachings. I care about what the text of the Bible says.
The impression I got when reading it with the strongs numbers is that it's not a sin to look, but to burn with passion with your gaze upon someone is the same as having sex with them.This is the go-to passage for people to condemn “lust,” which our modern ears automatically equate to mean “sexual fantasy.” However, I think taking a closer look at the words reveals that this passage has been long-misinterpreted, used to shame people (especially young men) for any and all sexual thoughts. And as we should know well by now, just because mainstream Christianity says something, doesn't mean they're right; we ultimately need to look to Scripture and make sure we're properly understanding the meaning of the words.
I will invariably be accused by some of “trying to justify sin.” But as Paul said in Romans 7:7, “I had not known sin, but by the law.” We have to know what God's Word actually condemns. So, how do we find out? The answer is actually in the same verse:
"What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.” Romans 7:7 KJV
First off, it is worth noting that many modern translations actually use “covet” for the first word instead of “lust,” so that the verse appears to refer only to covetousness. (This is an example where the KJV really shines.)
For example:
“For I would not have known what coveting really was if the law had not said, ‘You shall not covet.’” NIV
“I would never have known that coveting is wrong if the law had not said, ‘You must not covet.’” NLT
“For I would not have known what it is to covet if the law had not said, ‘You shall not covet.’” ESV
“For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, ‘You shall not covet.’” NKJV
The reason these modern versions do this is because both instances are actually the same word in Greek: epithumeó. However, this misses the essential point worth being aware of, which is that epithumeó is also the exact same “lust” word used by Jesus in the Matthew passage.
So, the Bible is very clear on this: The Bible tells us that epithumeó lusting is the same thing as the coveting of the OT. Therefore in order to understand what Jesus meant in Matthew 5:27-28, we need to go back to the context of the OT and discover what exactly coveting meant. In other words, when Paul tells us in Romans 7:7 to look at the 10th commandment to understand what Matthew 5 lust is, that is where we need to look.
The context in which desire is used in the 10th commandment, helps us understand exactly what kind of desire God is condemning. When condemning covetousness in the 10th commandment (Exodus 20:17), God mentions things like a man's house and his cattle, alongside things like his wife and his servants. Well, if God was simply saying it was wrong to find a man's house desirable, then that would mean that no person could ever sell another person their house, and real estate transactions would be sinful. If God was saying a man could not find another man's cattle desirable, then farmers would go out of business because they could not buy or sell cattle. So, we know God is not condemning a person finding things that belong to another, desirable.
Instead, what God is condemning is the strong desire (to the point of planning) to wrongly use or possess something that does not belong to us. He is condemning thoughts of plotting theft, not mere thoughts of desire. And in the context of sex, he not condemning a man finding a woman sexually desirable, but rather he is condemning a man desiring to seduce/entice a woman into sex outside of marriage. This would apply both to premarital sex and adultery.
Here is a great video to help show you exactly what covetousness is.
So basically, it seems Matthew 5:27-28 isn't just about some guy who is simply fantasizing about a woman, while not having any intent to ever actually seduce her/commit adultery with her. The reason adultery is already a sin in his heart in this passage, is because he's already on the path to adultery; he is coveting her, planning/intending to actually have sex with her. Think David & Bathsheba:
When did David first sin in the Bathsheba story? Was it when he first merely fantasized about her? Or was it when he allowed the fantasies to get out of control and progress to the point that he was actually planning on getting her husband killed, so that he could commit the act of adultery with her? There are three steps to this, not two: 1. The fantasizing 2. The intent/planning to take/possess (coveting) 3. The act of following through with it and seducing her.
#3 is obviously actual adultery. So which one is “committing adultery in his heart”? I would argue that it is clearly #2. #1 was okay, but #2 was where he first ran into trouble with actual sin. Of course you could argue that #2 would have been less likely to happen if he hadn't even done #1. And I suppose that's a possibility, but there are plenty of people out there who engage in #1 on a daily basis and never let it progress to #2. What is a problem for one person, isn't always a problem for another.
So in the Matthew passage, this isn't just some guy having a fantasy; rather, this is a guy who is thinking “My neighbor's wife is hot, and he'll be out of town next week. I must have her; I'm going to seduce her.” Whether or not he goes through with it or succeeds, he has still committed adultery in his heart by starting to set that plan to commit the sin, into motion. But looking at her and having sexual thoughts pop in his head, or even consciously imagining acts with her? It's just not the same thing. Same deal goes for masturbation and fantasy at home; sitting at home imagining sexual acts with a person is nowhere near the level of actually thinking “Ok, I need to go out and actually have premarital/extramarital sex.” (In fact, there are plenty of people who credit fantasy/masturbation with helping prevent them from going out and actually committing fornication/adultery!)
Mainstream Christianity sees Matthew 5:27-28 and rightly hones in on the heart-sin of “committing adultery in one's heart.” But the problem I think is that they mistakenly think the heart-sin is simply “fantasizing,” just because that's what goes through their mind when their modern ears hear the word “lust.” But that just doesn't seem to be the biblical meaning of what Jesus was actually talking about.
Don’t get me wrong, I do think they're right to hone in on the fact that there is a heart-sin, but they're just wrong about what it is: The heart-sin is that the hypothetical guy in this passage is already intending/planning to seduce the woman - not that he is simply having a fantasy about her. The sin of adultery is already in his heart before he even carries out the act. The intent/planning to physically sin, is the heart-sin. The point Jesus was making was that a sin like adultery doesn't just happen spontaneously; you actually plan and intend to do it, in your heart beforehand. And doing so, is wrong. But simply imagining/thinking about an attractive woman, doesn't necessarily lead to you standing at her door to have extramarital sex with her. Lol.
But here's another example: Me thinking about how a cheeseburger would taste really good right now, doesn't mean I'm actually going to even plan to go get one right now—let alone actually go. It just means I'm thinking a cheeseburger would taste good... We can have desires for enjoyable things in life, but we must have self-control and not let the desires progress to the point of planning to/intending to commit the actual sin. (Obviously eating a cheeseburger isn’t a sin, but I hope you get my point.)
Believe me, I'm as conservative of a Christian as they come (I believe the Bible is 100% the Word of God) and used to think all this stuff was sin too... but I've come to the conclusion that Christian culture has artificially made something into a sin, that actually isn't one. Following the Bible is what we are called to do, but there's a problem when the church misinterprets/mistranslates words and then creates false doctrines that lead to Christians feeling guilty and suffering and thinking they can't live up to an ideal that even God never expected us to live up to… And by the way, the Bible even warns against this! Groups of believers in the early church were already starting to twist things to make life even harder on believers - and they were chastised for doing so!
It's all a shame, because if I'm right (I increasingly think I am), then that means many Christians are sadly battling something that isn't even a sin. I went years thinking it was a sin, just bc that is what was taught at church/at my Christian school and because of the common modern understanding of the word “lust”... but when you dig deeper into the biblical meaning of words, it's a whole other story.
In conclusion, this (unfortunately mainstream) idea of repressing sexual fantasies is not biblical, and just leads to plenty of young Christians (especially men) needlessly suffering. Your sex drive is how God designed you; it is not a defect or something that only came about because of the Fall & sin. You were made to have sexual thoughts and fantasies, to help drive you to marriage. Men were made to have a sexual hunger for women and vice versa.
Tl;dr The Bible is not saying that it's a sin to fantasize about a woman; it's saying that it's a sin to think about a woman (particularly a married woman) with the intent to/having a plan to actually seduce her and have extramarital sex with her. That's the reason for the whole “already committed adultery in his heart” thing; the guy is already planning to commit the sin. This isn't just some guy who's thinking “Wow, she's hot; it's fun to imagine what she'd be like in bed”; no, this is a guy who is thinking “My neighbor's wife is hot and he'll be out of town next week. I must have her; I'm going to try and seduce her.”
Here are some links which go much more in-depth, and undoubtedly do a better job of explaining it than me:
Why "Lusting" in Matthew 5:27-28 Doesn't Make All Men Adulterers - Berean Patriot
"Whoever Looks at a Woman With Lust": Misinterpreted Bible Passages #1 | Jason Staples
Sexual Arousal And Fantasy Are Not Sin
Bible Topic Study: Matthew 5:28 Lust and Adultery
Do Not Covet: Is It a Feeling or an Action? - TheTorah.com
Yes, but the OP literally places the term "fantasy" on the same side as a mere appreciation of beauty.
I think a "fantasy" goes too far. Sure, I can notice that a particular woman is an wonderful example of God's design...and in my next thought realize that the entire day is also a wonderful example of God's excellent design. And that would be okay.
But to get involved in a fantasy--even an idle fantasy that I have no intention of actually indulging--is going too far toward letting my mind become controlled by the lust of my flesh. Is that really any different from pornography?
You said objectifying other human beings is a sin. My wife is another human being. Is it sin to look at her with lust?We aren't supposed to be objectifying other human beings. A human person is not an object to possess, but a person to be loved, respected, and served with humility, compassion, and grace.
You said objectifying other human beings is a sin. My wife is another human being. Is it sin to look at her with lust?
You said objectifying other human beings is a sin. My wife is another human being. Is it sin to look at her with lust?
Thanks. I'll try to keep up. I flit in and out of here occassionally when I have the time, but find I can't engage in discussions online in the same depth as I used to.Thanks for your post. And thanks to @Billy93 for this important topic. Billy has been working hard to keep up with the onslaught of comments from those with the standard view on the subject. I read through the whole topic and your post stood out as taking a broader view and introducing some important points. The question about wet dreams really caught my eye.
If you don't mind, I would like to explore the topic a bit with you to give @Billy93 a bit of a break and to bring some balance to this discussion. Everyone is invited to join in of course. Although I am likely to ignore those who bring more of the standard view, since that has already been fully exhausted.
I didn't see any discussion about the near context in Matthew chapter five about adultery. There are some things there to explore. As well as the difficulty posed by that passage and how it relates to the reality of human sexuality, especially for men, but for women too. Curious to hear from females about what the passage in question means to them as women.
A discussion of human sexuality, and the role played by what men see (the visual aspect) is central to understanding the difficulty of the primary text. I need to visit some of the links provided to see what is discussed there. But wanted to get the discussion going here first.
I'll start with the difficulty I see in the near context of the verse in question. I will put aside the definition of the word "lust" (covet) for the moment, even though I think it is a good point.
Jesus begins by speaking about looking at a woman with lust for her. ("a woman"/"her" = specific woman, not generalized) But then in verses 29 and 30 speaks about the right eye and the right hand. (causing sin) What this means in reference to a man looking at a woman is fairly obvious. Seems to be a reference to masturbation. Though, I suppose the right hand aspect might mean to lay hands on her. But that would be actual adultery, not lust/coveting.
Matthew 5:27-30 NASB
“You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery’; 28 but I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart. 29 Now if your right eye is causing you to sin, tear it out and throw it away from you; for it is better for you to lose one of the parts of your body, than for your whole body to be thrown into hell. 30 And if your right hand is causing you to sin, cut it off and throw it away from you; for it is better for you to lose one of the parts of your body, than for your whole body to go into hell.
Lust not after her beauty in thine heart, neither let her take thee with her eyelids. Proverbs 6:25This is the go-to passage for people to condemn “lust,” which our modern ears automatically equate to mean “sexual fantasy.” However, I think taking a closer look at the words reveals that this passage has been long-misinterpreted, used to shame people (especially young men) for any and all sexual thoughts. And as we should know well by now, just because mainstream Christianity says something, doesn't mean they're right; we ultimately need to look to Scripture and make sure we're properly understanding the meaning of the words.
I will invariably be accused by some of “trying to justify sin.” But as Paul said in Romans 7:7, “I had not known sin, but by the law.” We have to know what God's Word actually condemns. So, how do we find out? The answer is actually in the same verse:
"What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.” Romans 7:7 KJV
First off, it is worth noting that many modern translations actually use “covet” for the first word instead of “lust,” so that the verse appears to refer only to covetousness. (This is an example where the KJV really shines.)
For example:
“For I would not have known what coveting really was if the law had not said, ‘You shall not covet.’” NIV
“I would never have known that coveting is wrong if the law had not said, ‘You must not covet.’” NLT
“For I would not have known what it is to covet if the law had not said, ‘You shall not covet.’” ESV
“For I would not have known covetousness unless the law had said, ‘You shall not covet.’” NKJV
The reason these modern versions do this is because both instances are actually the same word in Greek: epithumeó. However, this misses the essential point worth being aware of, which is that epithumeó is also the exact same “lust” word used by Jesus in the Matthew passage.
So, the Bible is very clear on this: The Bible tells us that epithumeó lusting is the same thing as the coveting of the OT. Therefore in order to understand what Jesus meant in Matthew 5:27-28, we need to go back to the context of the OT and discover what exactly coveting meant. In other words, when Paul tells us in Romans 7:7 to look at the 10th commandment to understand what Matthew 5 lust is, that is where we need to look.
The context in which desire is used in the 10th commandment, helps us understand exactly what kind of desire God is condemning. When condemning covetousness in the 10th commandment (Exodus 20:17), God mentions things like a man's house and his cattle, alongside things like his wife and his servants. Well, if God was simply saying it was wrong to find a man's house desirable, then that would mean that no person could ever sell another person their house, and real estate transactions would be sinful. If God was saying a man could not find another man's cattle desirable, then farmers would go out of business because they could not buy or sell cattle. So, we know God is not condemning a person finding things that belong to another, desirable.
Instead, what God is condemning is the strong desire (to the point of planning) to wrongly use or possess something that does not belong to us. He is condemning thoughts of plotting theft, not mere thoughts of desire. And in the context of sex, he not condemning a man finding a woman sexually desirable, but rather he is condemning a man desiring to seduce/entice a woman into sex outside of marriage. This would apply both to premarital sex and adultery.
Here is a great video to help show you exactly what covetousness is.
So basically, it seems Matthew 5:27-28 isn't just about some guy who is simply fantasizing about a woman, while not having any intent to ever actually seduce her/commit adultery with her. The reason adultery is already a sin in his heart in this passage, is because he's already on the path to adultery; he is coveting her, planning/intending to actually have sex with her. Think David & Bathsheba:
When did David first sin in the Bathsheba story? Was it when he first merely fantasized about her? Or was it when he allowed the fantasies to get out of control and progress to the point that he was actually planning on getting her husband killed, so that he could commit the act of adultery with her? There are three steps to this, not two: 1. The fantasizing 2. The intent/planning to take/possess (coveting) 3. The act of following through with it and seducing her.
#3 is obviously actual adultery. So which one is “committing adultery in his heart”? I would argue that it is clearly #2. #1 was okay, but #2 was where he first ran into trouble with actual sin. Of course you could argue that #2 would have been less likely to happen if he hadn't even done #1. And I suppose that's a possibility, but there are plenty of people out there who engage in #1 on a daily basis and never let it progress to #2. What is a problem for one person, isn't always a problem for another.
So in the Matthew passage, this isn't just some guy having a fantasy; rather, this is a guy who is thinking “My neighbor's wife is hot, and he'll be out of town next week. I must have her; I'm going to seduce her.” Whether or not he goes through with it or succeeds, he has still committed adultery in his heart by starting to set that plan to commit the sin, into motion. But looking at her and having sexual thoughts pop in his head, or even consciously imagining acts with her? It's just not the same thing. Same deal goes for masturbation and fantasy at home; sitting at home imagining sexual acts with a person is nowhere near the level of actually thinking “Ok, I need to go out and actually have premarital/extramarital sex.” (In fact, there are plenty of people who credit fantasy/masturbation with helping prevent them from going out and actually committing fornication/adultery!)
Mainstream Christianity sees Matthew 5:27-28 and rightly hones in on the heart-sin of “committing adultery in one's heart.” But the problem I think is that they mistakenly think the heart-sin is simply “fantasizing,” just because that's what goes through their mind when their modern ears hear the word “lust.” But that just doesn't seem to be the biblical meaning of what Jesus was actually talking about.
Don’t get me wrong, I do think they're right to hone in on the fact that there is a heart-sin, but they're just wrong about what it is: The heart-sin is that the hypothetical guy in this passage is already intending/planning to seduce the woman - not that he is simply having a fantasy about her. The sin of adultery is already in his heart before he even carries out the act. The intent/planning to physically sin, is the heart-sin. The point Jesus was making was that a sin like adultery doesn't just happen spontaneously; you actually plan and intend to do it, in your heart beforehand. And doing so, is wrong. But simply imagining/thinking about an attractive woman, doesn't necessarily lead to you standing at her door to have extramarital sex with her. Lol.
But here's another example: Me thinking about how a cheeseburger would taste really good right now, doesn't mean I'm actually going to even plan to go get one right now—let alone actually go. It just means I'm thinking a cheeseburger would taste good... We can have desires for enjoyable things in life, but we must have self-control and not let the desires progress to the point of planning to/intending to commit the actual sin. (Obviously eating a cheeseburger isn’t a sin, but I hope you get my point.)
Believe me, I'm as conservative of a Christian as they come (I believe the Bible is 100% the Word of God) and used to think all this stuff was sin too... but I've come to the conclusion that Christian culture has artificially made something into a sin, that actually isn't one. Following the Bible is what we are called to do, but there's a problem when the church misinterprets/mistranslates words and then creates false doctrines that lead to Christians feeling guilty and suffering and thinking they can't live up to an ideal that even God never expected us to live up to… And by the way, the Bible even warns against this! Groups of believers in the early church were already starting to twist things to make life even harder on believers - and they were chastised for doing so!
It's all a shame, because if I'm right (I increasingly think I am), then that means many Christians are sadly battling something that isn't even a sin. I went years thinking it was a sin, just bc that is what was taught at church/at my Christian school and because of the common modern understanding of the word “lust”... but when you dig deeper into the biblical meaning of words, it's a whole other story.
In conclusion, this (unfortunately mainstream) idea of repressing sexual fantasies is not biblical, and just leads to plenty of young Christians (especially men) needlessly suffering. Your sex drive is how God designed you; it is not a defect or something that only came about because of the Fall & sin. You were made to have sexual thoughts and fantasies, to help drive you to marriage. Men were made to have a sexual hunger for women and vice versa.
Tl;dr The Bible is not saying that it's a sin to fantasize about a woman; it's saying that it's a sin to think about a woman (particularly a married woman) with the intent to/having a plan to actually seduce her and have extramarital sex with her. That's the reason for the whole “already committed adultery in his heart” thing; the guy is already planning to commit the sin. This isn't just some guy who's thinking “Wow, she's hot; it's fun to imagine what she'd be like in bed”; no, this is a guy who is thinking “My neighbor's wife is hot and he'll be out of town next week. I must have her; I'm going to try and seduce her.”
Here are some links which go much more in-depth, and undoubtedly do a better job of explaining it than me:
Why "Lusting" in Matthew 5:27-28 Doesn't Make All Men Adulterers - Berean Patriot
"Whoever Looks at a Woman With Lust": Misinterpreted Bible Passages #1 | Jason Staples
Sexual Arousal And Fantasy Are Not Sin
Bible Topic Study: Matthew 5:28 Lust and Adultery
Do Not Covet: Is It a Feeling or an Action? - TheTorah.com
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