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"Local" Biblical flood dismissed

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philadiddle

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When you can prove that there is only one kind of window let us know.
In other words you don't have any biblical evidence to think that it meant anything other than a plain ordinary window, which is what it literally says. I assume that you will join with me then in denying what secular science has to say about our atmosphere and exclaim that there are really windows that let the rain in. (That is actually what the ancients thought happen, which is why it was written that way.)

Obviously your "no biblical evidence that the flood wasn't global" is a non-sequitur. We are "interpreting" the bible. If we could read exactly what it meant and gather informational evidence from within the bible then we wouldn't be interpreting it, we would just be reading it. Obviously, you have an interpretation of the word "window" which doesn't come from the bible itself. It comes from your knowledge of how the atmosphere is actually structured. Am I wrong about that? If so, tell me one thing; if you didn't know anything about the sky, and you read that line about God opening the windows, what would you think it meant and why?
 
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dollarsbill

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What God has said is good enough for me.

Luke 17:26-27 (NASB)
26 And just as it happened in the days of Noah, so it will be also in the days of the Son of Man: 27 they were eating, they were drinking, they were marrying, they were being given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered the ark, and the flood came and destroyed them all.
 
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ebia

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Doesn't say or imply the story is literal.
 
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dollarsbill

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What?. The Luke text does not say the Noah text is literal.
It doesn't have to. It is consistent throughout the Bible. If you have Scriptural proof that it is not literal then go ahead. The only Biblical point of view of the Flood that I have seen is the literal.
 
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ebia

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dollarsbill said:
It doesn't have to. It is consistent throughout the Bible. If you have Scriptural proof that it is not literal then go ahead. The only Biblical point of view of the Flood that I have seen is the literal.

You keep telling me the bible says it's literal but you haven't produced any biblical text that does that.
 
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dollarsbill

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You keep telling me the bible says it's literal but you haven't produced any biblical text that does that.
Actually what I said is that the Bible clearly presents is as literal and nobody has provided Scripture proof otherwise.

1 Peter 3:20 (NASB)
20 who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water.
 
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ebia

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Again, that does not indicate whether the story is literal or not.

It's Impossible to prove the negative. It's up to you to show your positive claim. So far you haven't produced one.
 
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dollarsbill

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Again, that does not indicate whether the story is literal or not.

It's Impossible to prove the negative. It's up to you to show your positive claim. So far you haven't produced one.
I don't consider the many clear Biblical accounts to be negatives. Do you believe any of the Bible to be literal?
 
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ebia

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dollarsbill said:
I don't consider the many clear Biblical accounts to be negatives.
Oh, for pity's sake! Nobody is calling a biblical account negative.

[your] positive claim is that the bible presents the Noah story as literal.
The corresponding negative claim is that it does not.
The burden of proof lies with the positive claim since it cannot be possible to show the negative one without examining every possible meaning of every single verse in the bible.


Do you believe any of the Bible to be literal?

In broad terms, yes.
 
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dollarsbill

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Still waiting for anyone to disprove the Biblical accounts of the Flood. Until then I will consider them to be literal.

2 Peter 2:4-6 (NASB)
4 For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment; 5 and did not spare the ancient world, but preserved Noah, a preacher of righteousness, with seven others, when He brought a flood upon the world of the ungodly; 6 and if He condemned the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah to destruction by reducing them to ashes, having made them an example to those who would live ungodly lives thereafter;
In broad terms, yes.
In 'broad terms'?
 
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ebia

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dollarsbill said:
Still waiting for anyone to disprove the Biblical accounts of the Flood. Until then I will consider them to be literal.
You can consider the moon to be made of cream cheese if you want. Just stop saying that the bible says the Noah story is literal when it does not.

In 'broad terms'?
All language is a complex mix of metaphorical and literal working at different levels.
 
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dollarsbill

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You can consider the moon to be made of cream cheese if you want. Just stop saying that the bible says the Noah story is literal when it does not.

All language is a complex mix of metaphorical and literal working at different levels.
The Flood account is simple, clear and abundant in the Bible. I can't deny it. You have offered no Scriptural proof for denying it to be literal.
 
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