Jesus is Israel. How so?

Erik Nelson

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Ezekiel 36-40 = Revelation 20

houses in peace with no walls = millennium
gog and magog attack afterwards
 
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Original Happy Camper

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Revelation says 1260 days = 3.5 years = half of final 7 years of Daniel

Jewish War lasted 7 years (66-73 AD) and half way through the temple and city were desolated as Daniel was shown

There are three primary precedents in Scripture that show the day-year principle: ("Seventh-day Adventists Believe - An Exposition of the Fundamental Beliefs of the Seventh-day Adventist Church, 2nd edition". Ministerial Association, General Conference of Seventh-day Adventists. 2005: 48.)

  1. Numbers 14:34. The Israelites will wander for 40 years in the wilderness, one year for every day spent by the spies in Canaan.
  2. Ezekiel 4:5-6. The prophet Ezekiel is commanded to lie on his left side for 390 days, followed by his right side for 40 days, to symbolize the equivalent number of years of punishment on Israel and Judah respectively.
  3. Daniel 9:24-27. This is known as the Prophecy of Seventy Weeks. Read about the 70-week prophecy here. The majority of scholars do understand the passage to refer to 70 "sevens" or "septets" of years—that is, a total of 490 years.

The day-year principle specifically applies to prophecy:

Others who expounded the Historicist interpretation are John Wycliffe, John Knox, William Tyndale, Martin Luther, John Calvin, Ulrich Zwingli, Phillip Melanchthon, Sir Isaac Newton, Jan Huss, John Foxe, John Wesley, George Whitefield, Charles Finney, C. H. Spurgeon, Matthew Henry, Adam Clarke, Albert Barnes, and Bishop Thomas Newton as exponents of this school.


This day-year principle specifically applies to prophecy and is used for prophetic interpretation of "days" in prophecies. For example, historicist interpreters have usually understood the "time, times and half a time", "1,260 days" and "42 months" mentioned in Daniel and Revelation to be references to represent a period of 1260 years.

These time periods occur seven times in scripture:

  • Daniel 7:25, "time, times and a half".
  • Daniel 12:7, "time, times and a half".
  • Revelation 11:2, "42 months".
  • Revelation 11:3, "1260 days".
  • Revelation 12:6, "1260 days".
  • Revelation 12:14, "time, times and a half".
  • Revelation 13:5, "42 months".
Historicists usually believe the "1,260 days" spanned the Middle Ages and concluded within the early modern or modern era. Although many dates have been proposed for the start and finish of the "1,260 days", certain time spans have proven to be more popular than others.

We, like the earlier Bible students of the Reformation and post-Reformation eras, understand the 1260 "days" to be the period from AD 538 to 1798 when the papacy ruled in Rome. This 1260-year-period began with the defeat of the Ostrogoths by the general Belisarius and ended with the successes of Napoleon of France; specifically, the capture of Pope Pius VI by general Louis Alexandre Berthier in 1798.

Erick said
"Revelation says 1260 days = 3.5 years = half of final 7 years of Daniel"

Please support this statement of yours from scripture

The Day-Year Principle - Powered by Kayako Resolve Help Desk Software
 
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Dave-W

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So you prefer the definition from those who reject Jesus Christ as Messiah?
Moses (who wrote the Genesis passage) Rejected Christ?
 
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Nige55

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So you prefer the definition from those who reject Jesus Christ as Messiah?



JLB

You mean definitions from those who were first given the gospel ? Definitions from the same people who were Jesus disciples ?
Romans 1:16
"For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek."
 
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Dave L

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Still makes no sense after that, never has made any sense.
Scripture says Jesus is Israel in several places. I presented a couple of them. So your argument is with Matthew and Paul, not with me.
 
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Nige55

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Scripture says Jesus is Israel in several places. I presented a couple of them. So your argument is with Matthew and Paul, not with me.

I don't have an argument with them, as I don't believe they're saying what you claim they are.
Let's take Matthew, from your OP -
"Matthew reiterates this when he quotes Hosea;

When Israel was a child, then I loved him, And called my son out of Egypt.” (Hosea 11:1)

“And [Jesus] was there until the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son.” (Matthew 2:15)


As I posted earlier, I have no issue with the wording as we see throughout scripture God refer to Israel and it's people in both parental and protective terms. I see the examples where both Israel and Jesus are referred to by the name Jesus and yet I'm not attempting to claim that scripture only refers to ONE of them. It simply doesn't. It doesn't because taking such an approach can never explain how much of scripture could be referring to Jesus and not Israel/ the Jews. How can Jesus make himself jealous of salvation through himself to the gentiles, in order to save himself ? And that's just the start !
 
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Dave L

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It comes down to God having only one people...believers in Christ.
 
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Dave L

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And this seems to be the core of contention, what you're referring to are current believers in Christ. I'm a part of his people, but I wasn't always a believer.
And this seems to be the core of contention, what you're referring to are current believers in Christ. I'm a part of his people, but I wasn't always a believer.
Believers since Abel in the garden of Eden.
 
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