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Is "son of man" a Messianic title?

tonychanyt

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Oct 2, 2011
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The Hebrew expression "son of man" (בן–אדם, i.e. ben-'adam) appears in the Old Testament 103 times. Most of the time, the expression refers to a plain human. Psalm 146:

3 Put not your trust in princes, in a son of man, in whom there is no salvation.
That's not Messianic.

However, Daniel 7:

The above is Messianic.

Here, the "Son of Man" is linked to Christ, the Son of God, and possibly the great IAM.

In the NT, "the Son of man" occurs 77 times in the four gospels. It was Jesus' favorite title to refer to himself. Mat 16:

Here, "Son of Man" is linked to Christ, Son of God, and possibly the great IAM.

Matthew 24:30

“Then will appear the sign of the Son of Man in heaven. And then all the peoples of the earth will mourn when they see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven, with power and great glory."
Is "son of man" a Messianic title?

Yes, when it is applied to Jesus as prophesied by Daniel.
 

Simon_Templar

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Yes it is.

First and foremost, the phrase "son of man" is just a Hebrew idiom that means "a human being" as you point out.

Thus when we come to Daniel 7, the real shock and punch of the passage (for the Jewish mind) is that it essentially says that there will be a human being who will be given divine honor for all eternity, and who is ascribed divine status.

That is the major biblical reference.

However the title also appears in the Book of Enoch and in that text, the son of man is also clearly described as not only the messiah, but as divine.
Now, people may object that the Book of Enoch is not scripture, which is true. However, at the very least, it shows us what many Jews believed around the time of Christ. For that it is valuable, and it also shows us why Jesus would take that title.

It emphasizes his completely unique status as the one person who is Divine, but also human.
 
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