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Is masterbating considered a sin?

Mar 1, 2012
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I agree with this statement. If you only are thinking of your spouse while doing so, then it is not adultery.

Adultery has a very narrow and technical definition - the bible also speaks of fornication - an act might not be adulterous but it can be fornication so is it perhaps fornication?
 
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dies-l

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A colleague of mine just handled a termination of parental rights case involving a paralyzed woman and her husband losing their rights to their 15 minor children (who were severely abused by their father). Apparently, she allowed her husband to have his way with her so that he would continue to support her. I can't help thinking that this family would have been better off if the guy could have just learned to touch more often.
 
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Mar 1, 2012
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The act of masturbation and lust are two different things. Lust is sinful. Masturbation is not. There is no scripture to support your opinion.

Again I feel to see how you seperate the act from the motive. It seesm to me that you have arbitarily narrowed the definition of lust. By definition a lust is simply an intense longing, in relation to sexual acts it is defined as 'an intense or unbridled sexual desire' Merriam webster dict, 11th ed.

The need to touch is based solely upon the fact that one is not able to satisfaction their sexual desire totally bfrom the God ordained means (their spouse) therefore must seek the satisfaction they want from elsewhere - ie they are lusting. The act is an act of act of lust.

What I find very interesting int his sort of discusion is this the constant advocacy that the bible is silent on this matter there it is not sin. However I find that a dnagerous position to take - a far better couse in life is to focus upon the bible does advocate and seek to do only these things that we are told are pleasing to God. I believe that is the type of radical christainity the bible calls for and something bwe need a litle more of in our day and age
 
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Mar 1, 2012
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Or better yet the family might have been better off had he followed the biblical model for being a husband, Eph 5:25, that seems a better solution to me
 
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Lillen

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Not every culture have men masturbating. Masturbation is a western behaviour linked to how authorities or society organs (such as school) raise their teenagers. In my expierence lustful fixation of the penis ends in adulthood. Simply saying, adult men do not touch because they are over puberty. I find freudian psychology be quite silly, because the behaviors can be possessed.
 
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dies-l

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Do you have a source for this?
 
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Innovator

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The actual physical act of masturbation is not, as far as I understand it, a sin. That being said, there is much normatively associated with it that I believe would fall under the category of being sinful. For example, the thought processes, including, for many people, the use of pornography. Sex is at its best when it is an expression of love between two individuals of the opposite gender who are married to one another.
 
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ECBBLMSTR

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I know God is all for sex in marriage. But what about taking care of business yourself?

Absolutely, go for it. It is like training wheels for your marital sex big girl bicycle. You'll learn how to [bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse], what sex is about for you and how to apply that in a way that will be VERY pleasing to your mate. Masturbation was demonized by the same people who taught that sex was the original sin and that celibacy is morally superior to sexual life.
 
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ECBBLMSTR

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Your apparent definition of "lasciviousness" is way off and I would like to see a link to the source for it.

The verses you quoted are irrelevant to the subject. Matt. 5:28 is a warning not to look on a married woman to desire her sexually. Nothing about sexual fantasies in general or about masturbation.
 
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ECBBLMSTR

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Actually, the same passage that talks about this ceremonial law of uncleanness states that having an emission with your wife makes you both unclean, as well as her monthly period. These were symbolic observances. The moral uncleanness rules, sexual taboos, are still in effect and notably do not include either masturbation or the need for marriage before having sex, among other things. Christianity is highly ignorant of the Bible on sex.
 
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ECBBLMSTR

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Onan was greedy and malevolent toward his dead brother's widow. He was obligated to raise up heirs for his brother, but if he did this, his inheritance would go from 2/3 of his father's estate down to 1/3. (As the oldest of two with a double portion vs. as only one of three) Tamar had a right to expect children as well as a property inheritance to protect her in life. Onan was sinful in that he was willing to "use" Tamar without giving her an opportunity to conceive. Over time of course, this ruse would have failed and she would have been pregnant, but what kind of lowlife dad would he have had. These two dead sons of Judah were born from a Canaanite woman and the first one was so evil that it simply says that the Lord slew him. I suspect that Onan was not much different than his brother. Levirate marriage, raising up heirs for your dead brother was a basic moral obligation, and that is what the text gives as the reason the Lord killed him. Needless to say if God killed all masturbators, 99% of males and about 89% of females would be in trouble.

There is nothing to the idea of a sin of "wasting of the seed". If this was true it would be a sin to have sex with pregnant women or women past menopause. Male bodies make 150,000,000 sperm every day the overwhelming majority of which never find an egg. God designed us to shed these old sperm on a regular basis, so He doesn't have a problem with it either. Yes, some, not all, sperm cells can swim.. but they're not little people.
 
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ECBBLMSTR

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Adultery has a very narrow and technical definition - the bible also speaks of fornication - an act might not be adulterous but it can be fornication so is it perhaps fornication?

Obviously, that depends on the Bible usage of the word "porneia", translated "fornication". HINT: masturbation is not a type of fornication.
 
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revrobor

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Onan was killed for his disobedience. This has nothing to do with masturbation as it was a natural [bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse] spilled on the ground.
 
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ECBBLMSTR

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This passage has nothing to do with teaching that sex or sexual gratification can only be had in marriage. If it taught that, it would contradict the Law, which Paul did not do. The sexual laws of the NT church were established by scripture, the OT.

RE: 1 Corinth. 7:2 The translators, not to mention preachers and many commentaries, have REALLY let us down in this passage. The word "have" in verse two doesn't mean to obtain a wife, it means to have sexual relations with your current spouse. (See 1 Cor.5:1, John 4:18, John Gill's commentary as well as others and better translations such as the NetBible and its commentary.) The first section then of 1 Corinthians is written to Christian couples and instructs them not to cheat each other of sex, because they would be tempted by "the porneias" (translated sexual immorality), but literally means, "the whoredoms", that is the sex brothels in Corinth in worship of Aphrodite, which would be a temptation for husbands being denied by their wives. We could extend this principle taught here to include other types of fornication, but we can't say it applies to masturbation, unless we can show that the Bible says masturbation is a type of fornication, sexual sin.

This is just silly. First of all, I'm always good for round two and the wife will be glad that I won't be a minute man, but seriously, we're not discussing denying one's spouse by masturbation; we're asking if there are times that it is acceptable in or out of marriage, and you have failed to prove your point. Even this passage teaches that we have a right to sexual satisfaction even to the point of having dominion over another person's body. However, a little common sense here goes a long way. It's necessary to understand figures of speech when reading any text, and we would not think to suggest that a spouse has total rights over his/her mate's body or mind, for that matter. It's a joint "ownership". Each person enters the sexual relationship for THEIR OWN SEXUAL ("self-centered") satisfaction AS WELL as to give pleasure to their mate. This idea of marital sex not being at all selfish is nonsense, to put it politely.
And here you assume that one can seperate lust from the act? My friend, if there is no lust why is the act needed in the first place?
If by "lust" you mean, sexual arousal, of course, masturbation is a means of expressing or enjoying sexual arousal. But that's not the meaning of "lust", which is a desire for an evil or forbidden thing, such as lusting to have sex with another man's wife. Masturbation is usually just a desire for [bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse], not for a sinful sexual act. The fantasy, if there is one, should not be perverted. Sex and [bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse] are regarded as needs for males, and [bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse][bless and do not curse] is a need for all post-adolescents in terms of hormonal balance. We don't know about the sex life of Jesus, so that is irrelevant.
 
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tteague81

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To Revrobor

If a non-believer wants proof in the bible that states incest is a sin would you point them to the Old Testament?

If, "yes", would tell him that law is active today or that has been voided by the new testament?

But isn't the Old Testament still God's word? Doesn't He tell us how to live in the Old Testament as well as the New Testament? Does that mean if it has been voided by the New Testament, do we have to read the Old Testament anymore?
 
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tteague81

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The act of masturbation and lust are two different things. Lust is sinful. Masturbation is not. There is no scripture to support your opinion.

I agree. It's just like smoking. The actual 'act' of smoking is not a sin. Damaging your body, however, is.
 
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David Pratt

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Matthew Chapter 22

29. Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.

30. For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.


Will those who live in New Jerusalem be having sex based on the above scripture?

If not, then why not?
 
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revrobor

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Your question has nothing to do with the subject of this thread and is answered by the verse you posted.
 
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