The first paragraph attempts to establish a reason for hope being redefined as 'confident expectation' and gives these verses as proof:
For in this hope we were saved. But hope that is seen is no hope at all. Who hopes for what he already has? 25 But if we hope for what we do not yet have, we wait for it patiently.
Now faith is being sure of what we hope for and certain of what we do not see.
By faith Noah, when warned about things not yet seen, in holy fear built an ark to save his family. By his faith he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness that comes by faith.
So I say, “My splendor is gone and all that I had hoped from the Lord.”
My days are swifter than a weaver’s shuttle, and they come to an end without hope.
There is surely a future hope for you, and your hope will not be cut off.
For the grave cannot praise you, death cannot sing your praise; those who go down to the pit cannot hope for your faithfulness.
where then is my hope? Who can see any hope for me?
Kings will be your foster fathers, and their queens your nursing mothers. They will bow down before you with their faces to the ground; they will lick the dust at your feet. Then you will know that I am the Lord; those who hope in me will not be disappointed.”
For I know the plans I have for you,” declares the Lord, “plans to prosper you and not to harm you, plans to give you hope and a future.
Therefore we will not fear, though the earth give way and the mountains fall into the heart of the sea, though its waters roar and foam and the mountains quake with their surging. Selah
At no point in there do I see anything proving that definition. Indeed I see stuff
disproving this farcical attempt at redefinition in the first two quotes. Let's analyze them point by point.
For in this hope we were saved. (A) But hope that is seen is no hope at all. Who hopes for what he already has? (B) But if we hope for what we (C) do not yet have, we wait for it patiently.
In this quote I marked two working points. In A we see that hope is not 'seen' in other words we don't already have what is being hoped for. In B we see that if we have hope for something we don't yet have, then we wait for that which we don't yet have.
Neither of these two points redefines the word hope away from the standard definition. Indeed, it seems that they reinforce the standard idea of hope, if only superficially if we were to take point A slightly further and make it metaphorical- if we know we *will* posses an object, then we still have no need to hope for it because we can see ourselves having said object. At best we have C which would only prove your point if you flunked highschool english. 'yet' is synonymous with 'thus far' and doesn't make claims of guaranteed future possession.
Now faith is being sure of what we hope for and certain of what we do not see.
Here we have a single point, so no need for indexing. Here we see faith being used as a metaphor. Hope is definitely being used in it's normal context, without faith hope is nothing more than a strong desire for something, but when we have faith ontop of that hope we're certain we'll get it.
This is completely in line with normal usage and is also not redefining the word hope. So by the very evidence cited by your 'source' (laugh) your point and the 'source' are disproven.
This is just another reason why bible quotes make poor proof- they're subjective, often misinterpreted by the ignorance of adherents, and pretty much useless in intellectual discussions that aren't explicitly biblical. (and I consider biblical conversations to be equivalent to mental masturbation- they serve little purpose where secular sources would do a far better job.)
So tell me, is this the kind of evidence you base your world view on? If so, I'm sorry.