Outrider said:
I said that the study of God does not belong to philosophy. I did not say that the study of God does not belong to theology. Theology is exactly where the study of God belongs. I suspect that you assume that theology is a part of philosophy when in fact it is apart from philosophy. Philosophy is a perception of reality based upon reason. Theology is a perception of the divine based upon revelation. God can only be known to man as man is informed of the attributes of God through revelation.
I agree that God can only be known to humanity as humanity is informed of the attributes of God through revelation. And this revelation has been accomplished in the person of Christ, the self-revelation of God, to which Scripture and the Church are witnesses.
This statement does not make sense. It is true that Christ is the revelation of God. What is not true is that he is revealed apart from the Bible. I don't see how you can make any case for Christ being the revelation of God by cutting the means of his revelation off from the Bible.
I can make this case easily enough. Christ is the Logos of God. As the Word of God, the very Truth of God, Christ has become Incarnate in the history of salvation. Through this Incarnation, Christ, as the Logos of God, is the very revelation of God. Nowhere along the line is Scripture the means of this revelation. Rather, it is clear that the Scriptures are a testimony to the Truth of Christ--a reaction to the self-revelation of God in history. To make Scripture the ultimate source of revelation is to make Christ subservient to them. In other words, such an approach makes Scripture the determiner of God's self-revelation, rather than being informed in their content
by this self-revelation.
I note in many of your posts that you nullify the usage of Scripture by placing it in the dilemma of human interpretation.
I do not nullify the usage of Scripture at all. It is crucial to the life of the Church and believer, as it is a witness generated from within the believing community to the self-revelation of God in history.
This is too common. Variations on human interpretation do not present a dilemma to true interpretation of Scripture or to the revelation of God contained within it.
True interpretation of Scripture is that which is done in faithfulness to the historic and communal experience of the people of God and their witness to the revelation of God in Christ. Scripture, however, is not revelation--it is a testimony to revelation. It is a faithful witness, moreover, because Scripture does in fact preserve this witness and places it within the life of the believing community.
The missing element in your thinking is the office of the Holy Spirit in the exegesis of Scripture to those who submit to his teaching of it.
Not at all. I fully affirm the Spirit's role in exegesis.
The Bible clearly teaches that revelation from the written word is not alone, but is accompanied by the tutelage of the Holy Spirit.
Not true. The Scriptures are a witness to the revelation of God in Christ. Furthermore, the Spirit, as Christ himself said, is given to guide believers into "all truth." Therefore, as the truth of God has been revealed in the Incarnate Christ, the Spirit is an instructor in the revelation that has already been given in Christ.
When one begins with God as the Author of Scripture and then proceeds to God as the teacher of Scripture, where is the hermeneutic dilemma?
But God is not the Author of Scripture, at least not directly. Humans wrote the Scriptures in response to the actions of God in the history of salvation. And as mentioned above, the Spirit is given to guide believers into the full truth that has been revealed in Christ, not simply the "truth" that is contained in Scripture.
If raw human reason is applied to Scripture, certainly the result will be various and false interpretations of it, but where the believer submits to the teaching of the Scripture by God in humble faith, the problem blows away like chaff. Who knows the Bible better than its author? Who indeed is the Author and Finisher of the faith?
Proper interpretation is secured when interpretation is done within the context of the believing community which testifies to the truth which has been revealed in Christ. For example, the orthodox dogmas of faith provide hermeneutical parameters within which believers can (and must) approache the Scriptures. When these parameters are maintained through the faithful witness of the Church, the proper interpretation of Scripture is maintained.
Without the Bible, the whole Bible, it is doubtful that the very name of "Jesus" would be known to any but a few scholars of ancient Roman documents.
Well, thankfully enough the Church was able to survive for several decades (and flourish) without any documents that contained the name "Jesus." Rather, they maintained within their ranks a testimony and common faith that preserved the story of Jesus and eventually came to produce written versions of the faith which they shared amongst themselves.
All that would be known of the man would be a few sketches of a radical Jew from the time of Pax Romana.
Yes, that would be true if no one had believed his message. However, this is not the case; obviously, because we have the Scriptures which were written by those who did believe.
Strange that in this discussion one begins leaning completely on the revelation of Christ from Scripture to know his nature as God, perfect man, the hypostatic union of those natures (revealed from Scripture historically by the Holy Spirit through counsels), his redemptive work... things that could not be known from any ploace but from Scripture--- then turn around and say that the Bible is just a source material apart from special revelation and that human reason is sufficient to know him by somehow contemplating him.
Your caviat about the counsels overthrows your entire argument about Scripture, and shows that there was within Christian tradition other authorites besides Scripture upon which the Church relied for their theological understanding and development.
Moreover, I am not saying that human reason is "sufficient" to know God--obviously, there must be revelation. I am simply saying that this revelation is not located in the pages of Scripture--rather, the pages of Scripture record the Church's testimony to God's revelation in Christ.
Based on what? We have to start with the Bible to understand the God who is. Nature reveals deity, even that deity is invisible, omniscient, and all-mighty. But nature does not reveal redemption or the glorification of God through the revelation of grace, or the inexorability of divine justice.
I agree certain aspects of the nature and activity of God cannot be known by "contemplating" nature. However, before the writing of the gospels and the epistles, the early Church did not have the Scriptures. Did they not, therefore, have any source of information or revelation about redemption, grace, etc? Of course not! They had the testimony of those who had lived and walked with Christ--the apostles. Therefore, it was on the basis of the apostles' testimony that they believed.
How would you know those things you now take for granted had you not learned it in the Bible? So, why would you look for the revelation of God in any other place but the Bible?
Because revelation is not located there. However, the Scriptures are an accurate witness to the self-revelation of God in Christ. Therefore, they are a definitive source of authority in re: revelation. However, they themselves are not the revelation of God.
Has it not proven its ability (with the aid of the Holy Spirit's guidance) to reveal his attributes, at least those attributes he chooses to reveal to finite men with regard to their redemption?
They have proven their ability to recall the faithful's witness to God's attributes as revealed in Christ. I do not dispute this.
Strange that one will claim that God cannot be contained in a book, then turn and claim that God can be contained in the human mind or heart.
I never said this.
God has something to say about his being contained. He says first that he cannot be contained because he "fills up the heavens". Then he turns around and claims that he can assign his name to a place. In the Older Testament, it was the Temple. Today, it is a Book.
No, today it is the Church, the body (temple) of Christ.
The real question might be not "Can God create a rock he cannot lift". A more useful question for this faithless generation might be "Can God who cannot be contained place his name and vest his power of salvation in a written form and in the imperfect, verbal pronouncement of that name by imperfect people. God says he can. Let him be true...
Moving on...