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minasoliman

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Many Orthodox have criticized St. Anselm for many things, but there are two things I have trouble with. The judicial concept overall to me is not necessarily a troubling point as many Orthodox make it, but I find two things that are troubling in St. Anselm's beliefs:

1. Infinite Sin
2. "Robbing" God's Glory

Now, doing a little search on the Catholic Catechism, I found nothing in it that contains such beliefs that I have outlined above. Also, I understand that recently the Catholic Church has rejected the Augustinian belief of "limbo." Is it possible that there are Catholic theologians that may reject some aspects of St. Anselm's belief as I have outlined?

But if "Infinite Sin" is strongly upheld, what are the arguments for it? What of the writings of the ancient fathers support it, or even allude to it? Have I missed something in the Catechism, or in the Ecumenical Councils of the Catholic Church? Or has this been a controversy in the Catholic Church as well?

Thank you.

Mina
 

minasoliman

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In a nutshell, what Adam did was a direct sin against God, disobeying Him. Therefore, since the offense is against God, it's an infinite offense, which incurs an infinite debt which deserves infinite punishment, but to be saved would require an infinite payment, i.e. Christ.

Original Sin is infinite in that manner. This concept, I personally find troubling, but I wonder since I can't find it as an official Catholic dogma, if it's also troubling to Catholics as well, unless I missed something in my search that makes it clearly a dogma in the Catholic Church, and if it is held as a dogma, what is the rationale?

Thank you.

God bless.
 
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Called2Grace

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THis is intersting, I am really overdue for some deep theological learnings, but I think I will watch how this one goes. I don't really have anything to offer at the moment.

Ok, I do have a questions - If original sin is infinite sin, then what sort of an impact does this have on Catholics today?
 
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Globalnomad

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I find it interesting too - I hope some of our theologians will pitch in and answer it!

But Mina, I am pretty sure it is not something important for us. If it was, we would at least have heard of the concept, it would be in the Catechism. It is not.

If you ask for my own reaction to the idea, I would say something along the lines that there can be no such thing - if there was an infinite sin, then by befinition there would be no end to it, yet we know that one day in the glorious world to come, sin and pain will be gone.

Perhaps, by using a different definition of "infinite", one could indeed see original sin as infinite. But even then, the Redemption makes the problem irrelevant. Christ saved all humanity from the infiniteness - if it ever existed - of original sin, leaving only personal, finite sin.
 
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WarriorAngel

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I have never heard of this, perhaps in the context he has laid out.

In infinite, maybe he means infinite to all generations born of man.

Let us remember, men are men, and their perceptions might not always fully relate the Church's beliefs. Also language is a barrier from earlier times to our own times.

Which is why we have doctrines explained in generations that pass.

We have to allow a small bit of personal opinion too. But since the Church never elaborated on this concept, it very well could be understood in his time to say 'inifinite' means as long as God allows life on the planet the infinite [unending] sacrifice of Jesus will always wash away the sins mankind themselves can never remove [while on earth] I think that needs to be a distinction..
I could totally be in error on this.

Interesting.
 
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Davidnic

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I hope I have time today to get back to this thread. Infinite sin also has a basis in Aquinas. The gravity of the offense is measured against the dignity of the offended.

It often brought up with our thoughts on original sin. As far as the question of official dogma for infinite sin/malice I'll check, but a quick look over Ludwig Ott and I can not find it right away. I'll poke around a bit and hope to be back.

Many others can help too I am sure.
 
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Davidnic

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And it is good to see you my brother, If I remember we had a discussion once on the Nature of our Lord and how much we do agree on.

The Coptic Church is forever in my prayers in all the difficulties her people face for the love of Christ.
 
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QuantaCura

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I think davidnc got it right with the dignity of the one offended.

While Anslem's atonement theory (and there's a reason the word "theory" is used) is the most favored, and certain aspects of it are considered dogma, the Church acknowledges that no human explanation is sufficient to explain this central mystery of our faith. Here is a good article which discusses the various theories and the strengths and weaknesses of each:

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/02055a.htm
 
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minasoliman

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Dear Davidnic,

Thank you I do remember. Indeed, the Coptic Church never forgets the agreement made with HH Pope Paul IV

The gravity of the offense is measured against the dignity of the offended.

How has St. Thomas Aquinas defended this? I always thought, that the offense is measured against the dignity by the amount of damage made and furthermore, it's impossible to damage God, and that's I think the core of the problem.

Now, if it was a "countable" infinity like WarriorAngel said, I would agree, but I don't think that's what was implied, unless I'm wrong.

Dear QuantaCura,

The link you gave me was pretty good actually. Thank you! What's interesting is while it said that Christ's "value" was of infinite value, it never mentioned anything about sin being "infinite," which I find quite interesting, even when talking about St. Anselm. In fact, the Catholic Encyclopedia does say that St. Anselm may have been mistaken by making the Incarnation something necessary for God to do, which in this case shows that St. Thomas Aquinas, Abelard, and St. Bernard agreed that there's nothing that God lost or lacking in God.

This I find pleasing. I guess my question should be did St. Anselm really believe in an "infinite sin"?

Thank you.

God bless.

Mina
 
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