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It is difficult to believe any scripture was not scrutinized before publication
I don't think the New Testament was ever "published" in the sense you suggest. Complete codices of the New Testament were rare still in the 5th century. The writings emerged gradually and not all churches and homes had all of the "books" we have today and quite a few had some additional books (e.g. the Shepherd of Hermas) that did not end up in the final canon, which wasn't definitively established by the entire Church until the late 8th century.
I don't think he was trying to construct a detailed logical argument. I think he was just trying to point out that if the Gospel accounts showed no disagreements whatsoever then people would be much more likely to believe that they were contrived.
Well, we don't know. But by "publication" I actually meant, "put in writing."
It seems that some stories were oral, some written, and some a mixture of the two for some time.
So do I. There are indications in the Bible that God judges them by their conscience.
For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another [Romans 2:14-15]
I was wondering if someone could explain to me their views on the inconsistencies in the Bible. Specifically, how could a loving God commit the attrocities documented in the Old Testament? Genocide with the Great Flood. Laws for stoning people to death. Ordering the slaughter of innocent men, women, children, and babies. Condemning people to eternal torment. No loving human being would commit any of these acts, yet the Lord does so.
It is for these reasons that I have a hard time believing the Bible is the inerrant word of God. The Old Testament, in particular, is something I believe a people would write to explain away the attrocities they committed against other humans: God was with them, they prevailed in war, so that made it alright. The Romans worshipped gods and, when all was well, they thanked the gods, and when disaster struck, it was punishment from the gods. How is the God of the Old Testament any different?
Thanks.
Norm
I was wondering if someone could explain to me their views on the inconsistencies in the Bible. Specifically, how could a loving God commit the attrocities documented in the Old Testament? Genocide with the Great Flood. Laws for stoning people to death. Ordering the slaughter of innocent men, women, children, and babies. Condemning people to eternal torment. No loving human being would commit any of these acts, yet the Lord does so.
It is for these reasons that I have a hard time believing the Bible is the inerrant word of God. The Old Testament, in particular, is something I believe a people would write to explain away the attrocities they committed against other humans: God was with them, they prevailed in war, so that made it alright. The Romans worshipped gods and, when all was well, they thanked the gods, and when disaster struck, it was punishment from the gods. How is the God of the Old Testament any different?
Thanks.
Norm
It is a common error to assume that "the God of the Old Testament" is quite different from the God of the New Testament, especially when one has not carefully studied the entire Bible. But there is simply no comparison between the false pagan gods and the one true God. So there are no "inconsistencies" in the Bible, but they are imagined inconsistencies.The Romans worshipped gods and, when all was well, they thanked the gods, and when disaster struck, it was punishment from the gods. How is the God of the Old Testament any different?
It is a common error to assume that "the God of the Old Testament" is quite different from the God of the New Testament, especially when one has not carefully studied the entire Bible. But there is simply no comparison between the false pagan gods and the one true God. So there are no "inconsistencies" in the Bible, but they are imagined inconsistencies.
The reason these issues are raised is because people do not really want to face the fact that sin has very serious consequences, and that God -- in order to be God -- must not only offer grace to sinners but also judge sin in unrepentant sinners. So every incident of judgement indicates that sin is being judged and sinners are being punished. This is ABSOLUTELY CONSISTENT with the character of God.
There is no sane person who would advocate that criminals must not be brought to justice, and in the case of capital crimes the death penalty should not be applied. Yet when God judges "crimes" against His holiness, then critics come up with the lame excuse that God should never deal harshly with sinners.
And because they are minor, they should not be blown out of proportion (having set aside the Gnostic corruptions of the text)Agreed, mostly. There are minor inconsistencies between different manuscript traditions...
We must begin with the valid presumption that God has an excellent reason for whatever He gives to mankind. The variations in the Gospels for example, are NOT inconsistencies, but variations on the same theme to be harmonized and believed as one integrated whole. The Gospels have been harmonized, and they should be taken as a harmonic whole.I cant tell you why the geneologies in Matthew and Luke are different, or which of those two Gospels got the Beatitudes right, or if Jesus preached both sets.
Specifically, how could a loving God commit the attrocities documented in the Old Testament? Genocide with the Great Flood. Laws for stoning people to death. Ordering the slaughter of innocent men, women, children, and babies. Condemning people to eternal torment. No loving human being would commit any of these acts, yet the Lord does so.
And because they are minor, they should not be blown out of proportion (having set aside the Gnostic corruptions of the text)
We must begin with the valid presumption that God has an excellent reason for whatever He gives to mankind. The variations in the Gospels for example, are NOT inconsistencies, but variations on the same theme to be harmonized and believed as one integrated whole. The Gospels have been harmonized, and they should be taken as a harmonic whole.
I was wondering if someone could explain to me their views on the inconsistencies in the Bible. Specifically, how could a loving God commit the attrocities documented in the Old Testament? Genocide with the Great Flood. Laws for stoning people to death. Ordering the slaughter of innocent men, women, children, and babies. Condemning people to eternal torment. No loving human being would commit any of these acts, yet the Lord does so.
It is for these reasons that I have a hard time believing the Bible is the inerrant word of God. The Old Testament, in particular, is something I believe a people would write to explain away the attrocities they committed against other humans: God was with them, they prevailed in war, so that made it alright. The Romans worshipped gods and, when all was well, they thanked the gods, and when disaster struck, it was punishment from the gods. How is the God of the Old Testament any different?
Thanks.
Norm
I was wondering if someone could explain to me their views on the inconsistencies in the Bible. Specifically, how could a loving God commit the attrocities documented in the Old Testament? Genocide with the Great Flood. Laws for stoning people to death. Ordering the slaughter of innocent men, women, children, and babies. Condemning people to eternal torment. No loving human being would commit any of these acts, yet the Lord does so.
It is for these reasons that I have a hard time believing the Bible is the inerrant word of God. The Old Testament, in particular, is something I believe a people would write to explain away the attrocities they committed against other humans: God was with them, they prevailed in war, so that made it alright. The Romans worshipped gods and, when all was well, they thanked the gods, and when disaster struck, it was punishment from the gods. How is the God of the Old Testament any different?
Thanks.
Norm
I don't know where you found this piece of work, but they used 'two' in the wrong way, it should be 'to' AND the last sentence does not even make sense and contridicts the first sentence. The first sentence is putting down the writers of the gospels, followed by the second sentence who said 'they did nothing for vain glory' (I wrote it correctly, they had 'vainglory' which is two words, not a compound word).Inconsistencies in the Christian writings that eventually became the New Testament were well known and accepted by the Church Fathers.
Consider for example this introduction by John Chrysostom (Constantinople, 4th century):
And why can it have been, that when there were so many disciples, two write only from among the apostles, and two from among their followers? (For one that was a disciple of Paul, and another ofPeter, together with Matthew and John, wrote the Gospels.) It was because they did nothing for vainglory, but all things for use.
I believe that God of the Old Testament, and God of the New Testament are one (or three) in the same. God created us in His own image, that is, He created us with intelligence and free will. He gave us instructions, and turned us loose. We screwed up. In Old Testament times God was trying to straighten us out with punishments such as, floods, plagues, famines, raining fire, etc. Nothing He did worked for more than a short time. So, as a last resort, He sent Jesus to live among us, and teach us by example and with God's own Words. And, it was a sink or swim, do or die proposition. Believe in Him, and have eternal life, or not. Then God left it up to us. No more direct interventions in the affairs of men. Those who will open their hearts and minds to Christ's message will be saved, and the all the others will not. It's God's tough love. And, it has been since the beginning. Only His method has changed.
I do believe that God operates within the lives of His faithful followers. I believe in His mercy and miracles in our individual lives. But I do not expect God to rain fire on the Supreme Court, or open the San Andreas Fault to swallow up Hollywood, California. In Old Testament times, yes, that might well have happened. But today, salvation or damnation is left entirely up to us. In a sense, God has traded the stick for the carrot. Now it's just a question of how smart the donkey is.
I was wondering if someone could explain to me their views on the inconsistencies in the Bible. Specifically, how could a loving God commit the attrocities documented in the Old Testament? Genocide with the Great Flood. Laws for stoning people to death. Ordering the slaughter of innocent men, women, children, and babies. Condemning people to eternal torment. No loving human being would commit any of these acts, yet the Lord does so.
It is for these reasons that I have a hard time believing the Bible is the inerrant word of God. The Old Testament, in particular, is something I believe a people would write to explain away the attrocities they committed against other humans: God was with them, they prevailed in war, so that made it alright. The Romans worshipped gods and, when all was well, they thanked the gods, and when disaster struck, it was punishment from the gods. How is the God of the Old Testament any different?
Thanks.
Norm
I don't think the New Testament was ever "published" within the early Church in the sense you suggest. Complete codices of the New Testament were rare still in the 5th century. The writings emerged gradually and not all churches and homes had all of the "books" we have today and quite a few had some additional books (e.g. the Shepherd of Hermas) that did not end up in the final canon, which wasn't definitively established by the entire Church until the late 8th century.
This harmonization though is irrelevant because the inconsistencies do not threaten the integrity of the apostolic kerygma.
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