One huge problem with using Levitical laws to legislate morality is that,
unless one personally follows all those laws themselves, they cannot
very well attempt to enforce it upon others and expect to be taken at
all seriously in doing so. For instance, Leviticus states:
* That eating pork is a sin (Lev. 11:7)
* That eating lobster or shrimp or
scallops or oysters is a sin (Lev.11:10-
12)
* That wearing clothing made of different
fabrics is a sin (Lev. 19:19)
* That partaking in modern agriculture is
a sin (Lev. 19:19)
* That shaving is a sin (Lev. 19:27)
* That contact with a woman during her
period is a sin (Lev. 20:18)
* That dining on escargot is a sin (Lev.
11:42)
* That attending Church while wearing
glasses is a sin or allowing anyone
wearing glasses into your church is a
sin(Lev 21:20)
* That allowing anyone born with
scoliosis into your church is a sin
(Lev21:20)
* That allowing anyone who is
handicapped into your church is a sin
(Lev21:20)
Leviticus also supports slavery, as well as tells you when murdering
your own child is morally acceptable.
Now, how many of the laws in Leviticus are people breaking each and
every day while at the same time getting hung up on others’ sexual
orientation?!
Edit: It may benefit the reader to note Nadiine's post prior to this one as complimentary.
It can be argued that the purpose of the law is to establish morality in light of God's perfect love and wisdom, truth and light. So, more than simply words, each law contains a moral truth, whether it takes years of prayer and study to understand that truth, or whether it should be evident from the first reading.
The interesting thing I've noticed whenever slavery is noted as being 'bible approved' is that anyone who brings it up does nothing to distinguish it from the slavery under the Egyptians or in early America (and the rest of the world up to that time.) But, there is a major difference. The period of slavery in the law is set at six years (I think that's the number, I know it's less than ten) and then the slave becomes free, unless that slave chooses to remain a servant, or has committed some crime to extend his servitude. In general, it seems to me from context throughout scripture, that slaves under the law were treated rather well, almost like family. This can be seen in the law that prescibes how a slave girl can be married to the master's son. People will read this in the light of feminism and call it barbaric, call her a love-slave, but such an assertion ignores context completely. It was the duty of a man to preside over the marriage of his children, especially his daughter. We see this in marriage ceremony today when the father gives away the bride. The slave-girl was extended family, and if she was a suitable wife for her master's son, the law provides that the man must treat her as a daughter right away.
There's also an interesting part of the Levitical laws that is missed as well. The Hebrew people were supposed to be the example of Godly behavior to the rest of the world, so some of these laws that seem ridiculous had a purpose. Think about it. If Jesus was eventually just going to say 'what passes through the stomach just comes out anyway,' why would dietary laws exist in the first place? I can think of two reasons: a physical example of cleanliness, and discipline. Sleeping with a woman on her period would also go against cleanliness. The reason for the law of clothing made of more than one material? To prohibit and avoid vain fashion, and practice humility.
You cite Lev 19:19 as showing modern farming practice to be wrong. If you mean the planting of two different kinds of seeds in the field, the Hebrew word is 'mingled' seed. No farmer would sow wheat and corn within each other. I've seen soybeans next to corn in the same acreage, but in all practical purposes, they are two separate fields.
Leviticus 19:27 doesn't say shaving is a sin. Lev 19:27
"Ye shall not round the corners your heads" - This and the following verse evidently refer to customs which must have existed among the Egyptians when the Israelites sojourned in Egypt; and what they were it is now difficult, even with any probability, to conjecture. Herodotus observes that the Arabs shave or cut their hair round, in honor of Bacchus, who, they say, had his hair cut in this way, lib. iii., cap. 8. He says also that the Macians, a people of Libya, cut their hair round, so as to leave a tuft on the top of the head, lib. iv., cap. 175. In this manner the Chinese cut their hair to the present day. This might have been in honor of some idol, and therefore forbidden to the Israelites.
Jesus came to fulfil the law, but that did not repeal the law. Jesus spoke against the pharisees for the burden they placed on the people out of the law, but that makes the interpretation of the law wrong. If God decreed it, there must have been some moral ground for God to do so. I think Jesus showed that the proper observence of the law is to read its intent, not just its surface meaning.
That being said, the above assertion of 21:20 is
completely out of context. Verse 17 begins words for Aaron's decendants, who would be the priests of the temple. God decreed that no one with any major defect would not be able to minister to God's people, and this makes sense in that the preists needed to be men that the people could look up to and not find any fault with.
Seriously, where did you get this list? I'm assuming you pulled it off some site that doesn't have all its facts straight (that happens on the internet.) Anyway, if I were to eat shellfish or pork (which I generally don't anyway) how would it make any other levitical law any less of a sin? If I steal, does that mean I can't tell a guy not to kill someone because it's wrong? That's the implication being made here.