If Jesus had all authority with Father from the beginning, why was more authority given to him in Mt 28:18?

tonychanyt · Jul 21, 2024

After the resurrection, near the end of the book of Matthew, Jesus said in 28:

16 Meanwhile, the eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain Jesus had designated. 17 When they saw Him, they worshiped Him, but some doubted.

Some realized Jesus' divinity.

18 Then Jesus came to them and said, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to Me.

has been given
Ἐδόθη (Edothē)
Verb - Aorist Indicative Passive - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's 1325: To offer, give; I put, place. A prolonged form of a primary verb; to give.

Didn't the pre-existent Christ have all authority before?

Right. Php 2:

6 Who, existing in the form of God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,

The human Jesus gave up the omnipotent power.

7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in human likeness. 8 And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself and became obedient to death— even death on a cross.

Between the time he was born and died, his authority was limited. After the resurrection, he resumed his full divine authority.

9 Therefore God exalted Him to the highest place and gave Him the name above all names, 10that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

If Jesus had all authority with Father from the beginning, why was more authority given to him in Mt 28:18?

Jesus' authority as a man was temporarily limited. After the resurrection, he resumed his full divine authority.

Richard T · Jul 21, 2024

I think verse 20 "This day" makes it real clear that Jesus started. However, it is noted that Mary asked Jesus to turn water into wine pretty casually, she fully expected that he could do it. The question of speculation is was this from other things that she knew about Jesus? had Jesus done some things previously? Some teach that Jesus performed all miracles in His God nature, but I think you agree that He emptied himself out and performed the miracles as a man, empowered by the Holy Spirit. I am not saying he was not still divine, but he did not use it. Perhaps t replace Adam he had to do everything on earth as a man? However, as a Jew he could have done earlier things in his humanity; David and others did. However, after this baptism and 40 day fast, Jesus I'll assume as a man, empowered by God had authority like no one on earth before, but still as a man. Then after he sat at the right hand he sits in divinity and human? By all means please elaborate especially if I have anything wrong. I believe this is crucial not only to understand what was going on but also because it helps us understand what authority is passed down to believerers.

ke 4:18-21 (KJV)
18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.
20 And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him.
21 And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.

tonychanyt · Jul 21, 2024

Richard T said:
The question of speculation is was this from other things that she knew about Jesus?

Interesting question. Did Jesus turn water into wine privately before being witnessed by his mother? He might have

Richard T said:
Some teach that Jesus performed all miracles in His God nature, but I think you agree that He emptied himself out and performed the miracles as a man, empowered by the Holy Spirit.

Right.

Richard T said:
However, after this baptism and 40 day fast, Jesus I'll assume as a man, empowered by God had authority like no one on earth before, but still as a man.

I agree.

Richard T said:
Then after he sat at the right hand he sits in divinity and human?

I think so. A human with a glorified body.

Thanks for sharing your insights

Reluctant Theologian · Jul 22, 2024

tonychanyt said:
After the resurrection, near the end of the book of Matthew, Jesus said in 28:

Some realized Jesus' divinity.

has been given
Ἐδόθη (Edothē)
Verb - Aorist Indicative Passive - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's 1325: To offer, give; I put, place. A prolonged form of a primary verb; to give.

Didn't the pre-existent Christ have all authority before?

Right. Php 2:

Why was Jesus given authority then?

Between the time he was born and died, his authority was limited. After the resurrection, he resumed his full divine authority.

If Jesus had all authority with Father from the beginning, why was more authority given to him in Mt 28:18?

Jesus' authority as a man was temporarily limited. After the resurrection, he resumed his full divine authority.

Yeshua is theos/elohim, the Word incarnate, has full divine authority and in Him the fullness of deity dwells (Colossians 1:19, Colossians 2:9), yet there are many verses that signal His authority is still different from God the Father:

God the Father is still also the God of Yeshua (Micah 5: 3-5, Matthew 27:46, John 20:17, Romans 15:6, 2 Corinthians 11:31, Ephesians 1:3, Ephesians 1:17, Hebrews 10:5-7, 1 Peter 1:3)
God (= the Father) is the head of Christ (1 Corinthians 11:3)
Yeshua currently is seated at the right hand of God (=YHWH) (Psalm 110:1, Mark 14:19, Acts 7:55, Romans 8:34, Ephesians 1:20, Colossians 3:1, Hebrews 1:3, Hebrews 8:1, Hebrews 10:12, 1 Peter 3:22)
Yeshua prays / intercedes for us / is the High Priest (between mankind and God) (Romans 8:34, Hebrews 8:1
Yeshua is the way to the Father - the Father is the goal (John 14:6, Ephesians 2:18, Hebrews 13:15)
God the Father is greater than Yeshua (John 14:28, John 13:16, John 6:38)
Yeshua in all He does acts/speaks on command of His Father - He is under he full authority of God the Father (John 5:30)

YHWH is the very name of God (=the Father) forever (Isaiah 42:8). Yeshua is the name of the Messiah, the Son of God.

The One who sends/gives/is head is always higher in authority than the one who is sent/receives/is in submission. The Hebrew concept of Shaliah may help to understand and describe the relationship between Yeshua and God His (and our) Father. From the Wikipedia page: shaliah, literally 'emissary' or 'messenger' is a legal agent. In practice the shaliaḥ for a person is as this person himself.

Yeshua was given all power in heaven and earth (Matthew 28:18-20)
Yeshua was given a name above all names (John 17:11, Philippians 2:9, Hebrews 1:4)

Yeshua works on behalf of God the Father (=YHWH) but in practice He is as YHWH Himself.

If Jesus had all authority with Father from the beginning, why was more authority given to him in Mt 28:18?

tonychanyt

24/7 Christian

More options

Richard T

Well-Known Member

More options

tonychanyt

24/7 Christian

More options

Reluctant Theologian

אַבְרָהָם

More options

Similar threads

If Jesus had all authority with Father from the beginning, why was more authority given to him in Mt 28:18?

tonychanyt

24/7 Christian

Richard T

Well-Known Member

tonychanyt

24/7 Christian

Reluctant Theologian

אַבְרָהָם

Similar threads

Privacy & Transparency

Privacy & Transparency