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How do you explain Sheol?

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GratiaCorpusChristi

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I meant in the beginning of the development of Israelite conceptions of the afterlife, not in the beginning of the world. Genesis 4 tells the story of Abel from the perspective of later Israelite concepts.


The Greeks had their concepts of Hades, Tartarus, and the Elysian Fields centuries before Alexander conquered the Persian provide of Yehud! Homer's Iliad and Odyssey are from the ninth century BCE! And, even if the Minoan and Mycenaean "Greeks" of the thirteenth century BCE got their concepts of the afterlife from elsewhere, they almost certainly got it from Mesopotamia and Egypt, not a confederation of hill tribes off the main roads of the Levant. Gee-oh-peez.


Oh my, no, dear me, no. This simply isn't true at all. Hades is the name of the Greek god of the underworld and came to mean "the realm of [the god] Hades" by synecdoche. The name of the god Hades certainly didn't mean qodesh. Most of the time when there is crossover from Semitic languages to Greek the Semitic CH (variously het, heth, chet, cheth) goes from being a consonant to being the vowel η (eta), which was at one time a consonant in proto-Archaic Greek. Moreover, there's no reason why a Qoph would become a Kaph, nor a Kaph a Het. Moreover, there is no actual letter at the beginning of 'Αιδης, just a rough breathing mark. And 'Αιδης was originally spelt with the archaic letter digamma (looks like an F but pronounced like a W), as Awides, which means probably means "the unseen" and has no connection to qodesh whatsoever.
 
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Clare73

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If by "cast out of Paradise," you mean Adam was created in and then expelled from the Paradise that Jesus promised

to the thief on the cross, you are more than confused.
 
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Clare73

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I was merely reporting what was believed in the OT, not what was the truth of the matter.
 
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Gnarwhal

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Is this thread sneakily transforming into a soul-sleep or annihilationism debate?

I think it's inevitably going to devolve into an "is Enoch a valid book" thread.
 
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yeshuasavedme

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If by "cast out of Paradise," you mean Adam was created in and then expelled from the Paradise that Jesus promised

to the thief on the cross, you are more than confused.
I did not say Anything like that.
I said what the Word says: Adam was taken from the earth below to Paradise above, and set there in God's Garden of Rest.

Genesis 2: 15 And YHWH Elohym h3947 /laqach Adam h3947/yanach
h1588/gan Eden h5647 /abad h8104/ shamar...

The Hebrew word transliterated "laqach" means: to take, get, fetch, lay hold of, seize, receive, acquire, buy, bring, marry, take a wife, snatch, take away.


Most interesting that "laqach" is the OT word which would mean the same as "the rapture" and is used for that in several places [like Psalm 75:2,3, in Hebrew]

Also most interesting is the word "marry" is also translated form that word, and the same word for "divorce" is used for Adam's casting down, away, at the fall.
We are to be born again of the spirit and taken to Mount Zion of the Spirit above, and there, we are in the relationship of being "married spiritually" to the Second Creation human being Son of God, and are His "Bride/ishyah" and He is the "Ish/husband", but those are not the male and female words for sexual propagation.

So Adam is dead in spirit and the same as divorced from Zion above, in Eden, and cannot build up Zion for the Glory to indwell.

Redemption is about going back into the congregation of YHWH in heaven, as perfected in spirit sons of God.




When Adam became defiled and dead in spirit as a son of God, he was cast down to the earth below, from where he was taken from, and he could not go back.

We go there since the cross by being born again in Spirit of adoption because our believing souls are cleansed of the defilement in Adam, and we go there to await the resurrection body of flesh made in the New Man image.

We get back, in Christ, what we lost in Adam, which is access to Paradise and close fellowship with the angels who dwell in heaven
-and with the most High God of Glory.
 
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yeshuasavedme

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I meant in the beginning of the development of Israelite conceptions of the afterlife, not in the beginning of the world. Genesis 4 tells the story of Abel from the perspective of later Israelite concepts.
No, it does not....
The Word of God is true from the beginning and God did not wait to 'splain things until there was some kind of "evolving" of the Adam.
God created Adam fully mature and with the aleph-bet fully installed with the software for understanding the meaning of each letter installed, so that he could name all the animals with understanding and wisdom immediately, and so that he could fellowship with God the Creator in daily conversation.

The belly of the earth is the "hollows of earth in the belly" which the word "sheol comes from.

Sheol means "hollow".
 
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Lollerskates

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Because no one was sinless, and because Christ had not made his sacrifice yet, everyone went to the spiritual holding cell known as Sheol. That is all it is: a spiritual holding cell. They stay there to await "sentencing"/Judgment [day]. Some of the "righteous" may go to a nicer holding cell like "Abraham's Bosom," others not so much. In Enoch, he describes four seemingly bottomless columns where the souls went: three were filled with darkness, one was filled with light.
 
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Second Phoenix

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The concept of hell was introduced by Christ... Gehenna, anyone?
 
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GratiaCorpusChristi

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Your response has nothing to do with what I said, and even if it did, it's gibberish.
 
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yeshuasavedme

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The Greeks had their concepts of Hades, Tartarus, and the Elysian Fields centuries before Alexander conquered the Persian provide of Yehud!

The Greeks, descended from Japheth, son of Noah, were nothing but a tribe of sheep-herders when Moses led Israel out of Egypt.
Their gods are adopted from nations they conquered.

And as to Hades: it is a Hebrew word, "qadesh" and the nuking of Sodom and Gomorrah gave that area that name because of the "judgment of the example of the everlasting fire". -all words are Hebrew/Edenic, which is the mother tongue, and the root of the meaning of every word is found in the Hebrew origin.

Hades/kades/kadesh is from the Hebrew for "holy" but came to mean, in the judgment of Sodom and etc, "a sodomite".

The flood was only 292 years before the birth of Abram, and the tower of Bab -el rebellion and the fall of the Tower was in the 49th year of the life of Abram, and Noah lived another 9 years after the tower fell.
[I do not do math well, and I may have a mistake here, but anyone can check it out]
All the tribes began spreading out over the earth from that time, and Sodom and Gomorrah were settled shortly after the tower, and was destroyed by a good nuking from heaven, in judgment, when Abram was 99 years old; so 391 years after the flood, and 41 years after Noah died, Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities of the plain were judged by "suffering the vengeance of [the example of] everlasting fire" -as Jude says.


The nuking of Sodom and Gomorrah was a big event, and when the Greeks conquered the middle east, they took away with them the name for "the fires of judgment" from "The well Springs of Judgment" ="Kadesh" =Hades -from the example of Sodom and Gomorrah.

The K-H-Q are one gutteral sound, and the "sh" is often shortened to just the "s", as it is in the Greek to English Septuagint; So the Greeks got the story of Hades from there, at that time, and their myths were developed over time.
 
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christianmomof3

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The Bible is not internally consistent. It is a group of ancient manuscripts written by different authors in different time periods to different groups of people. Sheol was a Jewish concept. Heaven and Hell were Greek concepts.
 
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yeshuasavedme

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I showed in a prior post that Hades is nothing more than an adopted name which was coined by the Hebrews to describe "The well Spring Of Judgment" -"Kades" ="Hades" which was inflicted from heaven upon Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities of the plain centuries before the descendents of Japheth, through Javan/Yavan rose to any prominence in what later came to be called "Greece".

I once owned and read the so called "Anti Nicene Fathers" [I only sold them to get cash to aid a family member who was in dire need, so I sold my valuable things], and you might learn a bit of history from a couple that deal with the subject in a more truthful manner than what you have been led to believe was true history, but is not.

Start with "Tatian": Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol II: TATIAN: TATIAN

Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol II: TATIAN: Chapter XXXI. The Philosophy of the Christians More Ancient Than that of the Greeks.

Chapter XXXI.—The Philosophy of the Christians More Ancient Than that of the Greeks.
 
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yeshuasavedme

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The Bible is not internally consistent. It is a group of ancient manuscripts written by different authors in different time periods to different groups of people. Sheol was a Jewish concept. Heaven and Hell were Greek concepts.
The Book of Enoch is totally corroborated by the Torah and the prophets and by the LORD Jesus and the Apostles -esp John, who wrote the Revelation of Christ given to him- and it proves that you are in error on this matter.

The Book of Enoch, Translated by Robert H. Charles, 1912
 
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PaladinValer

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The Book of Enoch is not Scripture, and its theology is aberrant when compared to historic documentation from the 1st century ce onwards...not to mention secular discovery and knowledge.

GratiaCorpusChristi is correct.
 
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Lollerskates

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Revelation wasn't considered ztripture canon for a long time. Now, it is one of the cornerstones of prophecy and end-times.

The book of Enoch was canon for a long time until political offensiveness got it out of the Torah, and the. Most Christian canons. It is still in the Ethiopian canon. Enoch explains many, many questions that the bible canon are terse about. From the fall, to the prediction/prophecy of Christ. I. Most certainly treat Enoch as something needed. In fact, most prophets in the old and new testament gleaned a lot of information from Noah, who got it from Enoch and Lamech.
 
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