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Scripture teaches that the desire to sin is, itself, sin
It just seems to me that, in order for Jesus to be "tempted in every way that we are", he would need to have the desire to sin. Because without the desire to sin, there is no temptation. If I see a good-looking man and do not think of him sexually, then there is no temptation there. However, the Bible says that Jesus was tempted - so does that mean He had sinful thoughts, and just chose not to act on them? I know that Jesus was perfect, and I do not question that - but I just don't understand how he could be tempted like we are, if he never even debated committing a sin
Hi catsandcoffee,
That's going to depend on 'how' one defines being tempted. Your claim is that temptation comes from desires within us. Yes, we can put ourselves into situations of temptation because of such desires, but that isn't, as far as I understand it, the correct definition of temptation.
Satan took Jesus upon a high hill and showed him all the kingdoms of the world. He tempted Jesus with the claim that he could have all those kingdoms if he would bow down to him. It doesn't seem to have mattered that Jesus did or didn't desire to have all the kingdoms of the world, but he was tempted with the promise of them.
Jesus lived among us as a human being. He passed by all the same temptations that we do. He saw fine palaces in which others lived. Surely he saw beautiful and alluring women during his travels. I'm not so sure that I agree that because one does or doesn't have a desire for the things by which they are tempted, that determines whether or not they were tempted.
God bless you,
In Christ, ted
Hi catsandcoffee,
That's going to depend on 'how' one defines being tempted. Your claim is that temptation comes from desires within us. Yes, we can put ourselves into situations of temptation because of such desires, but that isn't, as far as I understand it, the correct definition of temptation.
Satan took Jesus upon a high hill and showed him all the kingdoms of the world. He tempted Jesus with the claim that he could have all those kingdoms if he would bow down to him. It doesn't seem to have mattered that Jesus did or didn't desire to have all the kingdoms of the world, but he was tempted with the promise of them.
Jesus lived among us as a human being. He passed by all the same temptations that we do. He saw fine palaces in which others lived. Surely he saw beautiful and alluring women during his travels. I'm not so sure that I agree that because one does or doesn't have a desire for the things by which they are tempted, that determines whether or not they were tempted.
God bless you,
In Christ, ted
Hi TOL,
Here:
Where did you find that instruction of the Scriptures?
God bless you,
In Christ, ted
So, being dragged away by our own evil desires and enticed is defined as being tempted. It is only after desire has conceived that sin is born. Then after it becomes full-grown sin, it gives birth to death.
God bless you,
In Christ, ted
So, perhaps I should be thinking of temptations more as "opportunities" to sin, and not necessarily sinful desires... that is a good point
The Lord Jesus Himself is the One Who was tempted, yet without sin:I have never thought of temptation itself as sin, but rather the decision to take action in submission to that temptation. I think that an act of our will (even before or instead of physical action, based on teaching from the Sermon on the Mount) that is in opposition to God’s will is sin. Temptation, the desire of our own will, if rejected to follow God’s will, is not sin, but acts to His glory.
(At least, that is my understanding, though I stand open to correction...)
In Romans 7:8 the Greek word for desire (epithumea) is identified with the sin of covetousness. Covetousness is a sinful desire.
In Romans 13:14 Paul talks about the sinful desires of the flesh. This demonstrates that there are sinful desires. The same is true in Galatians 5:16 and Galatians 5:24.
Ephesians 4:22 talks of deceitful desires which must be put off.
Colossians 3:5 speaks of evil desires which must be put off.
Jesus did not have any sinful desires as described above because then he would be guilty of sin.
I think we are in agreement here. Temptation itself is not sin, but our response to that whether in heart, mind or body, can be.The Lord Jesus Himself is the One Who was tempted, yet without sin:
"For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Let us therefore come boldly unto the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy, and find grace to help in time of need." (Hebrews 4.14-15)
There is a section in James which is also relevant.I think we are in agreement here. Temptation itself is not sin, but our response to that whether in heart, mind or body, can be.
Yes, that's exactly my point, we have evil desires and yes, they must be put off. Why must they be put off? Because if we allow them a foothold they will lead us to sin and death. We are weak in our spirit and allowing evil desires to grow within us will lead us to sin and death. The desires themselves are not the sin, although if we allow those desires to begin covetousness in us or physically act on those desires, we will then be sinning against God.
I would agree that Jesus did not have any sinful desires which is very likely a large part of the reason that he was the only acceptable substitute. However, Jesus did have desires.
Hebrews 4:15 NLT This High Priest of ours understands our weaknesses, for he faced all of the same testings we do, yet he did not sin.
Can anyone here shed some light on this passage? How is it possible to be tempted, but without sin? For example, when someone is tempted to cheat on their spouse, isn't the temptation itself a sin? If we desire to steal, isn't the desire itself a sin? I don't understand how Jesus could be tempted but also free of sin.
Thanks
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