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How Badly has Matthew 19:9 been Corrupted?

Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old. when FDR was president
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I just checked about 10 or so occurrences of ei me and all I saw was "but" and "save" which seem to serve the same purpose as "except." See e.g.
Mark 6:8​
(8) AndG2532 commandedG3853 themG846 thatG2443 they should takeG142 nothingG3367 forG1519 their journey,G3598 saveG1508 [ei me] a staffG4464 only;G3440 noG3361 scrip,G4082 noG3361 bread,G740 noG3361 moneyG5475 inG1519 their purse:G2223​
Mark 9:29​
(29) AndG2532 he saidG2036 unto them,G846 ThisG5124 kindG1085 canG1410 come forthG1831 byG1722 nothing,G3762 butG1508 [ei me] byG1722 prayerG4335 andG2532 fasting.G3521​
And again Matt 5:32 says the same thing but uses parektos instead of ei me.
Mat 5:32 ’but I tell you that whoever divorces his wife except [παρεκτὸς/parektos] for the cause of sexual immorality, makes her an adulteress; and whoever marries a woman put away in this manner commits adultery. Eastern Greek Orthodox Bible.​
 
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robert424

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Jamdoc,

Thank you for your comments.

Regarding your statement: "... if Jesus is not giving fornication as an exception, why have that clause?"

After thinking about your question for some time, I think I have boiled it down to an extremely short retort - no offense intended - 'So this means that 'not to X' means 'yes to Z'? What ever happened to 'no means no'?

Here is a poor example, for what it is worth:
If my just-turned-13-year-old daughter gets invited to a party by a 16 year old girl, who is a groupey of a group of 17 year old boys with tattoos, drugs, drunkards, etc., who have already got several girls in their school 'with child', I'm going to say NO!, and if she protests and says she will be going with a 16 year old girl, and I say "Not this weekend", does my second statement imply that she can go under certain circumstances, say, the next weekend? As a father, I say it does not. The second statement is merely giving more specifics about the first, more general statement. The second statement should be considered to be merely, a more specific example. The word 'not' does not logically or necessarily imply, 'yes, under certain circumstances'. I know, that some rebellious daughters would try to argue that 'not' implies 'maybe yes', but my whole point here is that no explicitly stated condition is stated after the phrase, 'not for fornication', that indicates there might be a 'yes'. So the interpretation that 'not' means 'maybe yes' is pure presumption.

In my analysis, the same situation is occurring in Matthew 19:9.
In the first phrase of Matthew 19:9, the author is saying that 'putting away your wife is adultery', and the second phrase - not for fornication - is merely a little piece of more specific information - an example. The second phrase is saying 'putting away your wife because she committed some sexual sin against you, is adultery'. The second phrase can be considered as a re-phrasing of the first phrase. Matthew is not 'excluding something from the charge of adultery' - he is 'including something'. The second phrase is merely a subset of the first, or, a specific example of the first phrase.

We could paraphrase the second phrase as 'not [even] for fornication'. The word 'even' is in square brackets to indicate that it is not in the Greek Text, but added for clarification. This is exactly the same as Christians have been doing for the last 500 years, by adding the word ει [if] into the, so-called, 'exception clause', of Matthew 19:9. The practice of using square brackets is a modern invention. They inserted the 'if', and we are only now finding out that it is a mistake. The word 'if', definitely makes a sentence into a 'conditional', but with the word 'not'; it is not necessarily so.

In Mark 10:11,12, in Mark's version of the story; he leaves out the 'exception clause' altogether. Interpreting Matthew 19:9 as an 'exception', needlessly creates an irreconcilable contradiction between Matthew and Mark. It implies that Mark is an unreliable witness because he leaves out the most important part. It also needlessly creates an irreconcilable contradiction in the statements of Christ where he first points out that God did not create divorce when he created marriage, and Christ said 'what God has joined, let man not put asunder', and then he goes on to allow Divorce? That is a major contradiction. Christ is interpreted to contradict God. This makes Matthew, Mark, Christ and God look so bad.

If my interpretation creates a contradiction; then that is evidence that my interpretation is wrong, and I must change my interpretation. Getting rid of the 'exception', resolves these major contradictions, and shows that Matthew, Mark, Christ, and God are all teaching the same thing.
 
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Jamdoc

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So by your interpretation if one party breaks covenant and commits adultery.

They're just powerless.

and if that covenant breaking party decides to abuse them or murder them for life insurance money? (can't take your spouse off the deed to the house, can't take the spouse off of life insurance benefactor)

Nothing they can do.

I hope Jesus is more compassionate than you.
 
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robert424

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Thank you for your comment.

In Matthew 5:32, the word παρεκτός/parektos, has some real problems.

Arthur Car (1906), in his The Gospel According to St. Matthew… writes: “παρεκτος. A rare word in N.T. and condemned by the Atticists." [bold emphasis added, accessed: 21 Sept. 2024. Car referenced Sturz, citation below.]

I realize that this is merely one citation. It is the only one I have ever found that questions the translation of parektos. This issue really must be investigated by the Professional Greek Scholars.

I also note that Sturz is studying 'Macedonian', which, I understand, is a dialect of Greek.

"... Attic Greek flourished and spread. It was picked up by the conquering Macedonian kings from the north, then scattered across the ancient world when Alexander the Great subdued vast swathes of territory from North Africa to the threshold of India."

I'm not an expert in Greek, so I'll have to leave this issue up to them. But it crossed my mind, the question: 'If Alexander spread Attic/Macedonian Greek across his empire, how can they claim that the original books of the Bible were written in Koine Greek and not Attic/Macedonian Greek?' I'll leave that up to the experts.

All I know that the ει [if] of Matthew 19:9 has been proven to be a mistake, so it is highly probable that the translation of parektos is also a mistake. We can't set one up against the other to create an unnecessary contradiction. This issue must be addressed, researched and solved.

But wait, there is more: a second example of the weakness of translating parektos as 'except'.

In Matthew 5:32, the 'so-called exception clause' is: 'παρεκτος λογου πορνειας' (except for fornication). So, why do they ignore the word λογου? Why don't they translate it? There is definitely something fishy going here.

Allow me to make some, wild, and probably ignorant, and maybe dead wrong speculation here. Could λογου be translated as 'say', (as we use it in English, to introduce an example), and the phrase be translated as, 'besides, say [for example] for fornication'. If this is a possible and valid interpretation, then it would be consistent with Matthew 19:9, which is no exception at all, but merely a more specific example of 'something that is adultery'.
----------------
citations:
Car, Arthur. The Gospel According to St. Matthew, with Maps, Notes and Introduction. Cambridge: University Press, 1906. p.122 in notes to Matthew 5:32. See Sturz, Dial. Mac. 210.” [= Sturz. De dialecto Macedonica et Alexandrina Liber.] The Gospel according to St. Matthew : Carr, Arthur, 1837-1916 : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive (Accessed: 5 June, 2024)

Sturz, Fridrich Wilhelm, (Guil.). De dialecto Macedonica et Alexandrina Liber. Lipsiae: apud Io. Aug. Glo. Weigel. (1808). Frid. Guil. Sturzii de dialecto macedonica et alexandrina liber : Sturz, Friedrich Wilhelm (1762-1832) : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive (Accessed 5 June, 2024)

[Blueletterbible.org says that a parektos (G3942) is sometimes translated as 'besides'. G3924 - parektos - Strong's Greek Lexicon (kjv) ]
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sincerely robert424
 
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robert424

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Jamdoc,

Thank you for your comment,

Yes, I agree with you that being a Christian is, commonly, a life filled with pain. But there is something we can do. We can take whatever steps necessary to stop the abuse. We can move out. We can cut off a drug-user so we are not contributing to the problem. etc. My main point is that sin or abuse does not terminate the relationship according to the Bible.

If my mother, goes rogue and starts snorting coke, and neglects or beats me; I can move out, but her bad behavior does not stop her from being my mother - same thing goes for a mother-in-law - same thing goes for a wife. Satan is still a son of God, no matter how bad he is - and he was even allowed back into heaven as a representative of earth. I find that just amazing. I'm just kind of glad that God doesn't smite me down the moment I do something wrong like I sometimes deserve.

sincerely
robert424
 
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Jamdoc

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It's a covenant, the covenant can be broken by 1 party or the other and then that covenant is broken and void.

The Noahic covenant and Abrahamic covenant and Davidic covenant were unconditional covenants, but the Mosaic covenant was conditional, and as part of breaking the covenant God punished Israel according to it's conditions, and that covenant passed away, and now we have the new covenant.

Mother to son or daughter is not a covenant relationship it's unconditional.

but marriage is a covenant and fidelity is its condition.
 
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robert424

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Jamdoc,

Regarding your question, "does adultery count as fornication in this sense."

My interpretation - and I must emphasize that is merely one interpretation - based on my research, is that Matthew 19:9 can be read as a list of things that are Adultery.
phrase 1. putting away your spouse is adultery [for any reason, as also witnessed by Mark 10:11,12],
phrase 2. [i.e. the infamous 'exception clause'] putting away your spouse for the reason of porneia, is adultery,
phrase 3. remarrying after having put away your original spouse, is adultery
phrase 4. marrying someone who has been put away, is adultery.

Notice that I am treating the 'so-called exception clause', as not a real 'exception', but merely a more specific example of a 'thing that is adultery'. I believe that this view is supported by this research. Also note that phrase two, is a specific example, that is already covered by the more general statement of phrase number one, so it really is not saying anything different than the first phrase. The second phrase is therefore optional and of little importance, so Mark was justified in leaving it out in favour of the more general and all encompassing statement of phrase number one.

It is justified to regard Matthew 19:9 as a list because this verse contains two instances of the word 'and', which is a conjunction. In Grammar, a conjunction separates parts of a sentence and is most commonly used where a person wants to contrast or compare the different elements. Here, in Matthew 19:9, the author is comparing four 'things that are adultery'.

Some scholars have tried to argue that the 'exception clause' must be applied to all the elements of Matthew 19:9, but it is a violation of the Rules of Grammar to apply a dependent clause - such as the 'exception clause' - to any other element on the other side of a conjunction - it is not allowed - it destroys the logic of the grammatical structure.

So, in summary, and to answer your question, and according to my research, yes, adultery counts as fornication in this sense. Everything and anything counts as something for which a man cannot divorce his wife according to the words of Christ in Matthew 19:9. Nothing can terminate a marriage relationship, in the same way that nothing can terminate the Parent-child bond. The bond is irrevocable, indissolvable and eternal - same as God's relationship to His Church.

I am a Protestant, but my research has led me to come to the conclusion, that the Catholic doctrine on divorce is far, far, far too lax - to the point of open sin. All of us - Protestants and Catholics - are fallen on this topic. Us Protestants need to become more Catholic than the Catholics and put away all divorce from us, for any cause. There is no re-do. There is no 'Pauline Privilege'. There is no Divorce. A Divorce does not dissolve a marriage. All remarriage to a second spouse is bigamy - which is a crime in North America. We should be put in jail for doing that. Pastors and Elders must have a body-count of one or zero to qualify for their position. We all have one chance, and if we screw it up, then we have to either be reconciled or live single and celibate, waiting for that reunion, demonstrating absolute loyalty to our errant spouse. That is my opinion, anyways, based on my research. I'm not going to hold my breath, waiting for these changes though, but I'm going to work on it. I have another book in the works with more shocking numbers.

And, yes, I realize that this position is extreme, but a scholar must follow where the numbers lead. Numbers don't lie, so, the issue here is over the proper interpretation of the text. We have to interpret the text in such a way as to show that God and all the prophets and Apostles are teaching the same thing, with no contradictions. Apparently, that will lead to extreme positions. My position could, very well, be wrong - and I'm kind of hoping that parts of it are wrong. So, lets hash it out. I'm open to suggestions.

sincerely
robert424
 
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robert424

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It's a covenant, the covenant can be broken by 1 party or the other and then that covenant is broken and void.

The Noahic covenant and Abrahamic covenant and Davidic covenant were unconditional covenants, but the Mosaic covenant was conditional, and as part of breaking the covenant God punished Israel according to it's conditions, and that covenant passed away, and now we have the new covenant.

Mother to son or daughter is not a covenant relationship it's unconditional.

but marriage is a covenant and fidelity is its condition.
 
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Der Alte

This is me about 1 yr. old. when FDR was president
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One scholar's opinion does not equate to a rule of grammar. The only real problems are that some few "scholars" find problems to make scripture fit their presuppositions.
Here is the definition of parektos from BDAG one of if not, the most highly accredited lexicons available.
παρεκτός adv. (=παρέκ Hom. et al., fr. παρά, ἐκ) ① pert. to being different and in addition to someth. else, w. focus on being external, besides, outside, abs. χωρὶς τῶν π. (sc. γινομένων) apart from what I leave unmentioned or what is external (i.e. sufferings, etc.) 2 Cor 11:28. ② used as prep. w. gen., pert. to someth. left out of other considerations, apart from, except for (Dositheus 45, 3 παρεκτὸς ἐμοῦ, Lat. praeter me; Cyrill. Scyth. p. 34, 4 π. σαββάτου=except on the Sabbath; Geopon. 13, 15, 7; Etym. Magn. p. 652, 18; TestJob 30:5; TestZeb 1:4; Dt 1:36 Aq.) Mt 5:32; 19:9 v.l. (AOtto, Die Eheschdg. im Mt ’39; KStaab, D. Unauflöslichkeit d. Ehe u. d. sog. ‘Ehebruchsklauseln’ b. Mt 5:32 u. 19:9: EEichmann Festschr. ’40, 435–52, ZKT 67, ’43, 36–44; HBaltensweiler, D. Ehe im NT ’67, 59–102; GStrecker, ZNW 69, ’78, 52–56. S. also πορνεία 2); Ac 26:29. π. θεοῦ without God, leading away from God D 6:1.—DELG s.v.
William Arndt et al., A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000), 774.​

Here is how the Eastern Greek Orthodox Church translates Matt 5:32 Parektos is no problem for the native Greek speaking scholars who translated the EOB
Matt 5:31 It was also said, “Whoever shall divorce’ his wife, let him give her a certificate of divorce,’ *’but I tell you that whoever divorces his wife (except for the cause of sexual immorality), makes her an adulteress; and whoever marries a woman put away in this manner commits adultery.​
 
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Jamdoc

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Well then God should be striking dead Adulterers on the spot, or we should be allowed to stone them to death over it.

Because just living with an unrepentant adulterer who becomes a danger to the entire family, is not just.
 
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robert424

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Regarding your statement: "It's a covenant, the covenant can be broken by 1 party or the other and then that covenant is broken and void."

I agree with everything except the last two words "and void." Marriage is based, in part, on a covenant, and it can be broken, by one party or the other, or both, and then the covenant is broken, but it is not void. I argue that 'broken' does not necessarily mean 'make void'. The 'broken' covenant can be restored or repaired or reconstituted. That is what Christian: forgiveness, reconciliation, and restoration is all about. It is the foundation stone of Christianity. The Idea that Marriage is merely a contract and can be entirely voidable is a modern Legal invention.

Before I begin to rehearse my proofs, I would like to point out the Japanese craft called 'Kintsugi'. Look up the term and see the images. They take broken pots and put them back together and highlight the broken seams with gold infill. They are beautiful - a celebration of brokenness. So, a pot, though broken, is still a pot, even though each broken piece will not hold much water. The point is, that it is still a pot and it can be repaired and made functional again, and made even more beautiful than before. What a Japanese craftsman can do for a pot, God can do the same for any broken person, and make them more beautiful than before the destruction. [note: can't find any nice public domain, pictures, sorry.]

Proofs that a 'Broken' Covenant is not void.


Eight Cases Where A 'Breaking of the Marriage Covenant' Definitely Did Not
Void The Marriage Relationship.​


1. God and Israel

The marriage between God and Israel, was not made 'void' after their divorce.

(Jeremiah 3:8) And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery, I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce...
(Jeremiah 3:14) Turn, O backsliding children, saith the Lord; for I am married unto you ...

So, God divorced Israel, giving them a bill of divorce - breaking the marriage covenant with them - then 6 verses later, he says he is married to them - and this was 'after', he had divorced them. Additionally, on the judgment day, the New Jerusalem will have, engraved above each door, the names of the twelve tribes of Israel, proving that he will be, physically, reunited with them.

This ought to be considered as definitive proof that divorcing (i. e. breaking the marriage covenant) does not void the marriage relationship.


2. Hosea and Gomer.

The marriage between Hosea and Gomer was not made void after her adultery.
(Hosea 1:2) God told Hosea to marry a harlot.
(Hosea 3:1) The the Lord said to me, "Go again, love a woman who is loved by a lover and is committing adultery, ... v.2. So I bought her for myself for fifteen shekels of silver, and one and one-half homers of barley.


3. David and Michal

The marriage between David and Michal was not made void by her remarriage to Paltiel.

(1Sam 25:44) But Saul had given Michal his daughter, David's wife, to Palti, the son of Laish, who was from Gallim (2 Sam. 3:13-16) [David said]: Give me my wife Michal, whom I betrothed to myself for a hundred foreskins of the Philistines. ... v.15 And Ishbosheth sent and took her from her husband, from Paltiel, the son of Laish. v.16. Then her husband went along with her to Bahurim, weeping behind her. So Abner said to him, "Go, return!" And he returned.

4. Abraham and Sarah and Pharaoh

The marriage between Abraham and Sarah was not made void by her remarriage to Pharaoh.

(Gen. 12: 15 ... and the woman was taken into Pharaoh's house. (v.16) And he entreated Abram well for her sake. ... v.19. [Pharaoh. says:] now therefore, behold thy wife, take her, and go they way.

Pharaoh. even recognized Sarah as Abraham's wife.

5. Abraham and Sarah and Abimelech

The marriage between Abraham and Sarah was not made void by her remarriage to Abimelech.
(Gen.20:3 Behold, thou are but a dead man, for the woman which thou hast taken; for she is a man's wife.)
And God said Abimelech deserved a death sentence for getting engaged to Sarah (a non-virgin).

6. The Levite and his concubine
(Judges 19:1-27)

A Levite's concubine abandons him and returns to her father. The Levite then follows her, four months later, to coax her to come back, but on the way back he commits adultery and she is murdered.

v.4 "His father-in-law, the girl's father prevailed upon him, and he [the Levite] remained with him for three days.

In verse 4 and 7, it refers to the concubine's father as the father-in-law of the Levite, and in verse 5 it refers to the Levite as the 'son-in-law'. In verse 25, the concubine was having sex with a bunch of men, committing adultery against the Levite, but even that did not void his marriage, and he was within his rights to exact vengeance upon the tribe of Benjamin. In Judges 20, the other 11 tribes of Israel went to war with the Tribe of Benjamin and nearly wiped them out.

The fact that the Bible acknowledges the father-in-law and son-in-law relationship even after the concubine abandoned him, is proof that abandonment does not void the marriage relationship. The fact that the Levite had the right of revenge after his concubine was murdered, is proof that the marriage relationship is not voided by the fact that the concubine was committing adultery.

7. Malachi 2:13-16 God complains about men putting away "the wife of his youth", and says "Yet she is your companion and your wife by covenant." The word 'Yet', conveys the meaning that God views the man as still married to the wife of his youth, even after he has divorced her. This is proof that, in the Eyes of God, the marriage relationship continues after a divorce and is not voided.

8. David and his concubines

(2 Sam.20:3) "And the King took the ten women, his concubines whom he had left to keep the house and put them in seclusion and supported them, but he did not go in to them."

The fact that they had had sex with Absalom, did not make void their marriage to King David, who carried out his familial duties to these - his concubines.

One Case Where There is Evidence of A Family-like Relationship Continuing
after the Breaking of the Marriage Covenant.

9. Abraham and Sarah and Hagar

(Gen 21:10-14) Abraham divorced Hagar: "So Abraham rose early in the morning, and took bread and a skin of water; and putting it on her shoulder, he gave it and the boy to Hagar, and sent her away." And this was with the consent of God (Gen 21:12)

but,

(Gen.25:6) Abraham put away all his concubines after Isaac was born.

(v.9) both Isaac and Ishmael buried Abraham.

So we can presume that Abraham and Hagar had been in contact and kept good relations between them, because Ishmael, fulfilling his familial duties, came hand helped bury Abraham after he died. They must have been close by, because it was customary to bury a body within a day in those hot countries. If there was a total break between Abraham and Hagar, then why would Ishmael come to help bury Abraham?


Two Cases Where We Don't Know the Nature of the Married Relationship
after the Breaking of the Marriage Covenant.​


10. (Ezra 9:1-44) Israelites had married foreign wives and they had to put them away.

11. Nehemiah 13:3 "The separated all the mixed multitude from Israel."

In both these cases, we know that the men had to put away their pagan wives but this was because the men of Israel were under an oath not to marry pagan women, so their marriages were illegal from the beginning. This would be considered an 'annulment', and not a proper 'divorce'. But, even then,
(Ezra 9:23-30) "Thus I cleansed them of everything pagan."

Bastow (1847) writes: "Ezra and Nehemiah obliged a great number of the Jews to dismiss the foreign women, whom they had married contrary to the Law." (Ezr. x. 11; xii. 19.) ibid.

Some have argued that those men who were required to put away their pagan wives, could marry Jewish wives, but this is merely presumption and speculation and is not in the Bible. For all we know, those pagan wives and children were given a place to live outside the Israel camp and cared for there, but the men were not allowed to have sex with those women and had to remain celibate for the rest of their wives - as unlikely as that sounds, given their polygamous nature. Also, it was customary for foreign wives who gave up paganism and converted to the worship of God to be adopted into the Tribes of Israel and that practice continues even in modern times.


So, in summary, we have eight examples in the Bible where a 'broken' covenant did not void the marriage relationship; one probable case, and two where we don't know the status of the marriage relationship after the divorce or, it might be an annulment rather than a divorce. The weight of the documented evidence falls on the side of the proposition that 'breaking' a covenant of marriage does not void the marriage.

Further, Secular Evidence that 'Breaking' a Marriage Covenant
does not Void the Marriage Relationship.​

Before the Protestants came along and instituted modern divorce, (fyi: I'm a Protestant), the Church Courts were in charge of family affairs. If you want to separate from your wife, you had to charge her with adultery and prove it in court, and then the Church Court would sentence your wife to Penance, and would give you a 'temporary' license to live apart - that's right 'Live Apart', 'temporarily'. This was granted for a certain time, so she could do her Penance for her sin - typically seven years - and at the end of that time period, the man was instructed to take back his wife and treat her with kindness. At that time, this was called a 'Divorce a mensâ et thoro, - which is Latin, meaning, a separation from room and board, and as you can see it is very different from the modern meaning of the word, divorce.

Then the Protestants came along and changed everything, and now we have a 70% divorce rate.

So, you see, your English ancestors, who lived before the time of King Henry VIII, had a very different view of marriage relative to the modern view. We have fallen a long, long way. Everyone must consider what will happen on the Judgment day, when we meet our English ancestors. When they find out that we divorce and remarry multiple times, and claim that Christ allows it; they are going to condemn us to hell - no? How will we justify ourselves. Think about that.

-------------------

citations:

James Austin Bastow. A Biblical Dictionary: Being a Comprehensive Digest of the History and Antiquities of the Jews and Neighbouring Nations : the Natural History, Geography, and Literature of the Sacred Writings. vol.1 (A-E) Bradford, York, UK: Walter and Scarlett, Westgate; London: W. Strange, 1847. p.447.




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robert424

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Der Alte,
Nice scholarship. That is what I like to see. I notice that the definition 'except', is really drowned out - only one instance - by the others: 'besides, outside, apart from. In fact, it looks like 'except' is the least popular. BlueletterBible.org has similar numbers. I noticed that some Scholars, including Dr. Leslie McFall, interpret the 'exception clause' of Matthew 5:32 as: "I'm not talking about porneia". Basically, they are saying that Christ is leaving the topic of 'porneia' completely out of the conversation and ignoring it completely. That translation would mesh nicely with the BDAG definition. But I'm gunning for a more extreme position.
On the topic of only three of us - in the last 500 years - poopooing translating parektos as 'except', I note that prior to the year, 1514, the situation was completely reversed, with only a handful, including Erasmus, Milton, Bucer, Luther, and a few others kicking at the shins of the Catholic Church. So, I am not bothered that I'm outnumbered a thousand to one. I'm a Scot, and that is good odds to me - all the sweeter when my side eventually wins. Hey, if Erasmus can completely overturn the status quo, then so can I. I'm highly motivated. LOL.
Thank you for the citation.
robert424
 
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robert424

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Well then God should be striking dead Adulterers on the spot, or we should be allowed to stone them to death over it.

Because just living with an unrepentant adulterer who becomes a danger to the entire family, is not just.
Mmmm. Come to think of it, I'm pretty sure that what you suggest is actually going to happen. Didn't I read that one of the last plagues is a hail of rocks, and that the sinners would be - mockingly - calling for the rocks to fall on them and hide them from the face of God? It sounds to me like the whole purpose of that plague is to stone all the adulterers, seeing that us humans have been negligent and refused to do it.

But, I agree with you that about the injustice of the whole situation. Yeh, trying to be a Christian is war and war is living hell.
I wish you well.
robert424
 
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Jamdoc

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There's things you can't legally do without a legal divorce, and "someday" doesn't cover things like they couldn't legally take his name off the deed for the house so you can't legally restrict access to him getting in the house, you can't as far as I know, put a restraining order on your husband, you can't legally take his kids away from him (that'd require a divorce and sole custody), etc.

Sure I get trying to reconcile if he's repentant.
But if he doubles down and the woman in the affair is planting plans that are dangerous in his head?
 
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BelieveItOarKnot

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Reality dictates that 99.999% of all heterosexual men commit adultery in their minds Matt. 5:28, (or numerous other alternative evil thoughts that defile us all, Mark 7:21-23) makes the whole kerfluffle kind of a moot point.

As if doing or not doing any particular sin moves the needle one little bit off the sin scale for anyone.

And since I didn't read the entire thing, I'll presume the author didn't bother to address that Paul handled matters of adultery in allegorical terms in most instances, such as in Romans 7, first giving a physical instance and then launching in to what it REALLY means in the spiritual senses, which is all that really matters
 
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RBarnes

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Hi @robert424 and thanks for the informative reply. It also helped me locate where the ligature of έἰ exactly is in the GA 989. I noticed rather quickly that it appears on an isolate page and the style, spacing, and boldness is quite different than what is observed as the main body of the scripture being copied in the center of all other pages. Have you noticed this too? Is it truly a continuation of the gospel from the previous page? Or is it a continuation of the lexical commentary, which happens to quote Matt 19:9? (I can't read Greek). Check out the images:

 
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Der Alte

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"I notice that the definition 'except', is really drowned out - only one instance - by the others: 'besides, outside, apart from. In fact, it looks like 'except' is the least popular." They all pretty much mean the same thing, i.e. "except" as far as I understand which is supported by the EOB which I quoted above.
 
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RBarnes

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With respect, have you read the work provided by the original poster yet? If not, you should really do that.
 
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Der Alte

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With respect, have you read the work provided by the original poster yet? If not, you should really do that.
Did you? The lead paragraph. "This article updates and vastly expands the research from my last post titled: Major Mistakes in the Bible - Matthew 19:9 - Latest Research (from July 4, 2021). I am, here, exploring whether, or not, the Greek word ει in the exception clause of Matthew 19:9 changes over time and whether or not, it has any doctrinal ramifications. Conclusions are still tentative at this point."
 
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