"For whom he did foreknow, he also did predistinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren" KJV
The NKJV actually capitalizes the He, but the 1611 KJV(above) and the NIV does not.
????
We've been on Romans 8 primarly for several weeks a church, as Tim has been giving the basics of the Doctrines of Grace--as R.C. Sproul put it and Tim has used also--the Unbreakable Chain of Grace.
One part of the main verses used is confusing to me. It talks about how God has predestined us to be shaped into the likeness of Jesus(paraphrased) and then comes the confusing part--to be the "firstfruits of many"---what exactly is he talking about here?
I'm sure there is a simple(hopefully)explaination here and I'm just missing it. But Tim seemed to completely skip that part of the explaination of those verses (verses 28-31 if my memory serves me). It's almost as if he treated it like it wasn't there.
Would Paul be speaking to the first-century christians only in that verse? Is that a part of the verse that would not be pertaining to us? It seems that if that part wasn't important, that he wouldn't have been inspired to put it in(it is a very important verse in the bible after all--for me at least one of the most important as far as clarifying God's Will and Purpose for us)
so now that I see that one of the versions of the bible has the "he" capitalize, makes it seem as if Christ was the firstborn among many brothers--which makes sense, since He has been describes this way in other verses.
Does anyone have any views on it?
The NKJV actually capitalizes the He, but the 1611 KJV(above) and the NIV does not.
????
We've been on Romans 8 primarly for several weeks a church, as Tim has been giving the basics of the Doctrines of Grace--as R.C. Sproul put it and Tim has used also--the Unbreakable Chain of Grace.
One part of the main verses used is confusing to me. It talks about how God has predestined us to be shaped into the likeness of Jesus(paraphrased) and then comes the confusing part--to be the "firstfruits of many"---what exactly is he talking about here?
I'm sure there is a simple(hopefully)explaination here and I'm just missing it. But Tim seemed to completely skip that part of the explaination of those verses (verses 28-31 if my memory serves me). It's almost as if he treated it like it wasn't there.
Would Paul be speaking to the first-century christians only in that verse? Is that a part of the verse that would not be pertaining to us? It seems that if that part wasn't important, that he wouldn't have been inspired to put it in(it is a very important verse in the bible after all--for me at least one of the most important as far as clarifying God's Will and Purpose for us)
so now that I see that one of the versions of the bible has the "he" capitalize, makes it seem as if Christ was the firstborn among many brothers--which makes sense, since He has been describes this way in other verses.
Does anyone have any views on it?