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Genesis is a lie. Question for christians...

mathetes123

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If the first Adam was not a literal figure, why would you expect the last Adam to bea literal figure?
 
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Greg1234

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People evolved eagle wings?
 
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Assyrian

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If the first Adam was not a literal figure, why would you expect the last Adam to be a literal figure?
Can't metaphors be used to describe things that are real? The Good Shepherd is a metaphor, yet there was no problem using the metaphor to describe Jesus who is very real. If Uncle Sam isn't real does that mean the United States isn't real either?

Anyway, if you think about it the last Adam is a metaphor too. Jesus' name wasn't Adam.
 
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Papias

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Greg wrote:



No Greg - As I pointed out in that post, Exodus 19 is yet another example of the literal interpretation (of people being flown out on actual wings, feathers and all) is clearly incorrect, and the metaphorical interpretation is what is intended. Nearly all Christians use metaphorical interpretations at various point in their chosen Bibles.

Have a good day-

Papias
 
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Assyrian

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Wasn't the first person to sin Eve? Just because there must have been a first person ever to sin doesn't mean Paul is discussing it literally. Paul calls Christ the last Adam rather than the second Adam, but that isn't the problem, it is that he call Adam the first man and Christ the second man. When Paul compare Adam and Christ there are only two men in the universe, the whole sinful human race is summed up in Adam and the new humanity summed up in Christ because he redeemed us and made us one with him. Paul tells us he interprets Adam as a figure of Christ, is it an off the cuff remark with no connection with the rest of the passage? Given that the whole passage is a comparison of Adam and Christ, starting with the "Just as..." in verse 12, shouldn't we consider that Paul comparison of Adam and Christ could be figurative. 'One man' in verse 12 doesn't help you tie the passage down to literal history since the whole comparison 'one man... so also... one man' runs down through the whole passage. It is the language Paul uses to compares Adam and Christ, we see it again in the first man... second man language in 1Cor.

Of course Adam could be a real person and Paul discuss him figuratively. But you were taking the references to Adam, assuming they were treating them and the events around them literal, and taking it as evidence they were historical.

Good point. It is difficult though, to know what the groups called heretics believed since the people who called them heretics destroyed most of their writings. Some of the so called heretics may have been true believers, and some may have interpreted the eucharist symbolically, though denying transubstantiation would be enough to get you labelled heretic even if you didn't go all the way to a completely symbolism. I suspect though that most believers throughout this period were in the Catholicism and the Orthodox churches who also believe in the real presence though not transubstantiation. With the Reformation, Lutherans and Anglicans abandoned transubstantiation but stuck with consubstantiation the real presence of Christ in the eucharist, Calvinism and the Reformed churches went with spirtual presence. Of the main early reformers only Zwingli went with symbolic, though his ideas have spread since. Basically, Jesus said 'this is my body' and there isn't very much in scripture to contradict a literal interpretation.
 
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Smidlee

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Wasn't the first person to sin Eve?
Eve was deceived but Adam wasn't. Both Adams did what they did willfully and out of love. God command Adam personally not to eat that fruit so he was more accountable. Jesus claimed the Pharisees were more accountable than those in Sodom.
 
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Greg1234

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You do realize that Christ himself is the interpretation of "man" here right? Christ was hardly a man in the normal sense of the word.
 
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Assyrian

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Eve was deceived but Adam wasn't. Both Adams did what they did willfully and out of love. God command Adam personally not to eat that fruit so he was more accountable. Jesus claimed the Pharisees were more accountable than those in Sodom.
Adam may be more accountable, but it doesn’t change who sinned first. Interesting take with the 'both Adams' though, but it doesn't help with 'sin came into the world through one man'
 
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Assyrian

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You do realize that Christ himself is the interpretation of "man" here right?
Except it refers not just to Christ but all the redeemed in Christ too. Eph 2:15 by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace.

Christ was hardly a man in the normal sense of the word.
Careful with your understanding of the incarnation Greg. Yes Christ was God incarnate, but if he wasn't fully human too he could not take away our sins. Heb 2:17 Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people.
 
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Greg1234

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Except it refers not just to Christ but all the redeemed in Christ too. Eph 2:15 by abolishing the law of commandments expressed in ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace.

Hm, I don't see how this contradicts what I said. "14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; 15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace."

He has broken down the wall, but it is still up to us to make both as one.


"14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.
16 For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.
17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted."



I don't see any problems here either. He took on flesh but was not a man in the ordinary sense of the word.
 
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gluadys

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You do realize that Christ himself is the interpretation of "man" here right? Christ was hardly a man in the normal sense of the word.

Yes he was. Otherwise there was no real Incarnation.
Otherwise John was wrong when he said "The Word became flesh and dwelt among us."
And the early church was wrong when they opposed the view that Christ was not a man in the normal sense of the word--was not truly human.


I don't see any problems here either. He took on flesh but was not a man in the ordinary sense of the word.

That won't wash. He didn't just put on flesh like a garment. Rather he took on human nature. He was in every respect a man in the ordinary sense of the word. He was God with us as one of us.
 
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Assyrian

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What glaudys said.
 
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