Genesis 1:26

Wolf Georges · Mar 6, 2005

I've been reading the Bible a lot lately and have a habit of leaving it all over the house, which has started my wife reading it as well. This is a great thing but she asked me a question which I had no answer for. Why does God refer to himself in the plural in Genesis 1:26?

"Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth."

He does it again in Genesis 3:22.

"Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil"

I had never noticed this before. Any insight would be appreciated.

Thanks in advance.

TrevorL · Mar 7, 2005

Howdy Wolfe Georges,

Greetings. The word "Elohim" is translated in the KJV Bible usually as God, but sometimes as god, gods, angels and judges according to each context. There is some inconsistency with modern translations, where the KJV "angels" is translated "God" in Psalm 8:5, and "judges" is translated "God" in Exodus 22:8-9, eg ASV, RV, RSV. Note "heavenly beings" NIV and "God" NIV mg for Psalm 8:5, "judges" and mg "God" for Exodus 22:8-9.

Genesis 1:26 (KJV): "And God said, Let usmake man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth."

The conclusion then is that Adam and Eve were fashioned in the image and after the likeness of God and the angels. This also indicates that the angels themselves are fashioned after the image and likeness of God. That the angels were involved in Genesis 1:26 is confirmed in Psalm 8:5.

When David contemplates the spiritual and natural creation in Psalm 8, he alludes to Genesis 1:26:

Psalm 8:3-6 (KJV): "3 When I consider thy heavens, the work of thy fingers, the moon and the stars, which thou hast ordained; 4 What is man, that thou art mindful of him? and the son of man, that thou visitest him? 5 For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour. 6 Thou madest him to have dominion over the works of thy hands; thou hast put all things under his feet:"

As stated above, the translators have had trouble deciding how to render "Elohim" in Psalm 8:5, eg ASV, RV, RSV render this as "God". The KJV recognises the range and meaning of the word "Elohim" in this context and translates this word as angels, as does also the LXX, who were perhaps fearful of the many gods of the Greeks. Why does God involve the angels in His work when it is obvious that He could accomplish all things by Himself? Surely, He delights to involve others, as much as others are delighted to be involved in God's work.

God delights to share His own glory with His creation, and we should seek after God's likeness
Psalm 17:15 (KJV): "As for me, I will behold thy face in righteousness: I shall be satisfied, when I awake, with thy likeness."

Kind regards
Trevor

bjh · Mar 7, 2005

Might Genesis 1:26 also indicate plurality in the Godhead? (i.e., Father, Son, and Holy Spirit)

Wakeup2god · Mar 7, 2005

Read John 1:1-2

Father - Son - Holy Spirit are one. They were in the begining and made man in their likeness. With thier attributes. Creativity, emotion.

bjh · Mar 7, 2005

Wakeup2god,
Yes, they are one, but not in the sense of Modalism.* In other words, even though They are one in essence, there is still distinction - as evident at Christ's baptism. I think you agree with me on this, in that you use the plural - "they", "are", "were", etc.

*Modalism is the idea that there is one person in the Godhead. He manifests Himself as Father, Son, or Holy Spirit, as need be. If I remember right, I think the idea was that He manifested Himself as the Father in the OT, the Son in the NT, and the Holy Spirit in the Church age.

Wolf Georges · Mar 7, 2005

Interesting. Both explanations are very appreciated and provide insight. The only question that I have with the quote referring to the Holy Trinity would be if it appears plural in Jewish versions of the OT. If so, I would question why they would include such a reference.

bjh · Mar 7, 2005

Wolf Georges said:
Interesting. Both explanations are very appreciated and provide insight. The only question that I have with the quote referring to the Holy Trinity would be if it appears plural in Jewish versions of the OT. If so, I would question why they would include such a reference.

If you mean Modern Jewish versions (as opposed to the ancient Hebrew texts), that is a very good question.

Wolf Georges · Mar 7, 2005

I did a little research and found out that the line is included in the Modern Jewish version. I actually found a pretty good website (http://bible.ort.org), which is hosted to help people studying for their Bar/Bat Mitzvah. Here's their take on it:

"God was speaking to all the forces of creation that He had brought into existence (cf. Targum Yonathan; Ramban). Now that all the ingredients of creation had essentially been completed, all would participate in the creation of man, the crown of creation. Others interpret 'we' in the majestic sense, and translate the verse, 'I will make man in My image"

Wolf Georges · Mar 7, 2005

icbal said:
Adam was not the first man.
Nowhere in the scripture does it say he was.

Genesis 1:26 testifies to that by not saying "Let Us make a man. Let us make him in Our image."
Neither does it say "Let us make men"
God says simply, "Let Us make man in Our image."

Simply, man already was made, and God saught to change him, to be more like Him.
Think communication.
Think intelligence.
Think spirituality.

Adam was the first prophet. The first religious head.
Not the first man.

Uh-oh...that's a whole different angle. My head is really spinning now. I went back and re-read Genesis 1 and I don't know if I agree with your assessment. Considering the whole chapter is about creation it would be an odd place for God to discuss re-creation without ever addressing the original creation. Also, regardless of how you interpret that, it still begs the question of why God would referred to himself plurally. Interesting thought though. I'm anxious to see if anyone else has any input.

Wakeup2god · Mar 7, 2005

We have to understand that God is in a different realm to us and way beyond our understanding. Maybe it's like this.

I am the head of my family. This is what I am
I am a father. To my children I am this, I father them
I can personally go out and work. I am an active person in the flesh to those I help
I can write a letter advising someone. I am wisdom but not flesh to the resipiant
I am all these people but I can be seperate.

Does this make sense?

I believe Icbal has a competely different view on things.

bjh · Mar 7, 2005

icbal said:
Adam was not the first man.
Nowhere in the scripture does it say he was.

Genesis 1:26 testifies to that by not saying "Let Us make a man. Let us make him in Our image."
Neither does it say "Let us make men"
God says simply, "Let Us make man in Our image."

Simply, man already was made, and God saught to change him, to be more like Him.
Think communication.
Think intelligence.
Think spirituality.

Adam was the first prophet. The first religious head.
Not the first man.

Really? I think that the Apostle Paul might disagree with you on that one. (1 Corinthians 15:45-49)

Edial · Mar 8, 2005

Wolf Georges said:
I've been reading the Bible a lot lately and have a habit of leaving it all over the house, which has started my wife reading it as well. This is a great thing but she asked me a question which I had no answer for. Why does God refer to himself in the plural in Genesis 1:26?

"Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth."

He does it again in Genesis 3:22.

"Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil"

I had never noticed this before. Any insight would be appreciated.

Thanks in advance.

Great introduction!

The are many arguments concerning the reasons for the plurality.
Some said that it is God together with his angels. However, that option can be excluded due to v.27

GE 1:27 So God created man in his own image,

where God refers to himself alone as a creator of a man.

We should note that the word God is plural in its original language, yet, there is one God, as it is emphatically defined by God himself.

So, the plurality of the original word could point to the trinitarian nature of God and the singular definition (v.27) could indicate that there is only one God.

I think that since the doctrine of the Trinity is very prominent throughout the Bible, the explanation of this text as a definition of a Trinity is the safest method of interpretation.

Thanks,
Ed

Edial · Mar 8, 2005

Wolf Georges said:
I did a little research and found out that the line is included in the Modern Jewish version. I actually found a pretty good website (http://bible.ort.org), which is hosted to help people studying for their Bar/Bat Mitzvah. Here's their take on it:

"God was speaking to all the forces of creation that He had brought into existence (cf. Targum Yonathan; Ramban). Now that all the ingredients of creation had essentially been completed, all would participate in the creation of man, the crown of creation. Others interpret 'we' in the majestic sense, and translate the verse, 'I will make man in My image"

Hello there.

You do realize that the idea of the Trinity is an unacceptable option for the Judaic Orthodox theology.
Jesus Christ had significant disagreements with them and their interpretation methods.

Also, because of the v.27 (where God identifies himself as the sole creator) it is unlikely that "we" refers to others, as co-creators, or helpers.

And since it was God himself who created the angels, and then they observed him creating the earth and the heavens by himself (they were just the observers in the book of Job), it is consistent that the LORD God will continue the creation by himself with no aid.

Furthermore, since the new birth of a man (born-again) is also accomplished by God himslef with no assistants, it further disporoves the Judaic (and some Christian) thought of "we" representing others that assisted God in creating.

Thanks,
Ed

Theophorus · Mar 8, 2005

I'm with Edial on this one. It is a revelation of the Trinity. This is the traditional view of the references quoted. I do not think that it could refer to angels, because of the creative aspect, It is God who created everything.

Wolf Georges · Mar 8, 2005

Edial said:
You do realize that the idea of the Trinity is an unacceptable option for the Judaic Orthodox theology.
Jesus Christ had significant disagreements with them and their interpretation methods.

Also, because of the v.27 (where God identifies himself as the sole creator) it is unlikely that "we" refers to others, as co-creators, or helpers.

And since it was God himself who created the angels, and then they observed him creating the earth and the heavens by himself (they were just the observers in the book of Job), it is consistent that the LORD God will continue the creation by himself with no aid.

Furthermore, since the new birth of a man (born-again) is also accomplished by God himslef with no assistants, it further disporoves the Judaic (and some Christian) thought of "we" representing others that assisted God in creating.

Yes, I completely understand the fact that Judaism, and it's followers, are not believers in the Trinity. The reason that I checked, and then referenced the interpretation found in the Jewish version of the OT is because I was curious to see how they dealt with the plural reference. Considering the fact that their faith does not recognize the Trinity I thought the explanation would be of interest.
My only remaining question with God referring to the Trinity in the verse would be does he refer to himself as we anywhere else? Particularly in the NT. I'd be very interested to know.

HeatherJay · Mar 9, 2005

My belief is that it refers to the Trinity. But, I've also heard of people interpreting it in the majestic sense (as someone mentioned earlier)...you know, the way kings and people of royalty refer to themselves in the plural ("We will be retiring to bed now" you know, that kind of thing).

Edial · Mar 10, 2005

HeatherJay said:
My belief is that it refers to the Trinity. But, I've also heard of people interpreting it in the majestic sense (as someone mentioned earlier)...you know, the way kings and people of royalty refer to themselves in the plural ("We will be retiring to bed now" you know, that kind of thing).

It is indeed interpreted by some like that.
However, if it would be in a majectis sense we would see it throughout the Bible. But we do not.
Besides, in my studies I found that the words that God speaks are extremely accurate from a technical perspective.
If he says we, it is more than one.
So, the trinity is a likely options.
Thanks,
Ed

Edial · Mar 10, 2005

Wolf Georges said:
Yes, I completely understand the fact that Judaism, and it's followers, are not believers in the Trinity. The reason that I checked, and then referenced the interpretation found in the Jewish version of the OT is because I was curious to see how they dealt with the plural reference. Considering the fact that their faith does not recognize the Trinity I thought the explanation would be of interest.
My only remaining question with God referring to the Trinity in the verse would be does he refer to himself as we anywhere else? Particularly in the NT. I'd be very interested to know.

Excellent question!
No, he does not. (Not to my knowledge, at least).
A person below thought that "we" means a majestic reference to himselh. And the fact that it does not appear elsewhere it kind of eliminates that possibility.
Genesis' first chapters are unique, since their source is probably the quotes of God himself. Moses wrote it.
And he spoke to God face to face (through the vail, of course).
If I would speak to God personally like that I would probably ask him: "How did you do it?"
And he answered the way we would understand it.

Thanks,
Ed

TrevorL · Mar 14, 2005

Howdy Wolfe Georges and others,

Greetings again. I am still convinced as per my previous Post #2 that the plural in Genesis 1:26 includes the angels. Paul quotes Psalm 8:5 in the following:
Hebrews 2:7 (KJV): "Thou madest him a little lower than the angels; thou crownedst him with glory and honour, and didst set him over the works of thy hands:"
This confirms that the word "Elohim" in Psalm 8:5 has the range to include the angels and this endorses the KJV translation of Psalm 8:5 "angels" for the word "Elohim" usually translated "God". As David is commenting on Genesis 1:26 this is then a Divine commentary that "Elohim" in Psalm 8:5 and hence also "Elohim" translated "God" in Genesis 1:26 includes the angels. God involved the angels in the creation of man, but any action on their part would involve the power and wisdom from God.

In what sense could it be said that man was made lower than the angels? Did God when he created man in his image and after his likeness make man lower than God Himself only, or also lower than the angels? It is obvious that man was lower than the angels because Adam was created with the possibility that if he disobeyed he would die. Man did sin, and he was sentenced to die. Those that are found worthy will be resurrected and in this respect will be equal with the angels.
Luke 20:35-36 (KJV): "35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage: 36 Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection."

There are other aspects in which Adam and Eve were not equal to the angels. The very prohibited tree was an evidence that Adam and Eve when created were oblivious to a knowledge of good and evil, while God and the angels knew good and evil.
Genesis 3:3-5 (KJV): "3 But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die. 4 And the serpent said unto the woman, Ye shall not surely die: 5 For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil."
Genesis 3:22-23 (KJV): "22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever: 23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken."
Please note "gods" Genesis 3:5 is again "Elohim" and some versions translate this as "God". This makes better sense when we accept the range of "Elohim" to include the angels.

Adam and Eve grasped at equality with the angels, and failed to achieve equality, not only in character, but also because they were forbidden access to the tree of life and were cast out of the garden. But the faithful will be given equality with the angels, if they through the gospel seek to be transformed unto the likeness of the character of God revealed through Christ.
1 John 3:1-3 (KJV): "1 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not. 2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is. 3 And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure."
Psalm 17:15 (KJV): "As for me, I will behold thy face in righteousness: I shall be satisfied, when I awake, with thy likeness."

Kind regards
Trevor

nephilimiyr · Mar 14, 2005

TrevorL said:
Howdy Wolfe Georges and others,

Greetings again. I am still convinced as per my previous Post #2 that the plural in Genesis 1:26 includes the angels. Paul quotes Psalm 8:5 in the following:
Hebrews 2:7 (KJV): "Thou madest him a little lower than the angels; thou crownedst him with glory and honour, and didst set him over the works of thy hands:"
This confirms that the word "Elohim" in Psalm 8:5 has the range to include the angels and this endorses the KJV translation of Psalm 8:5 "angels" for the word "Elohim" usually translated "God". As David is commenting on Genesis 1:26 this is then a Divine commentary that "Elohim" in Psalm 8:5 and hence also "Elohim" translated "God" in Genesis 1:26 includes the angels. God involved the angels in the creation of man, but any action on their part would involve the power and wisdom from God.

In what sense could it be said that man was made lower than the angels? Did God when he created man in his image and after his likeness make man lower than God Himself only, or also lower than the angels? It is obvious that man was lower than the angels because Adam was created with the possibility that if he disobeyed he would die. Man did sin, and he was sentenced to die. Those that are found worthy will be resurrected and in this respect will be equal with the angels.
Luke 20:35-36 (KJV): "35 But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage: 36 Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection."

There are other aspects in which Adam and Eve were not equal to the angels. The very prohibited tree was an evidence that Adam and Eve when created were oblivious to a knowledge of good and evil, while God and the angels knew good and evil.
Genesis 3:3-5 (KJV): "3 But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die. 4 And the serpent said unto the woman, Ye shall not surely die: 5 For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil."
Genesis 3:22-23 (KJV): "22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever: 23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken."
Please note "gods" Genesis 3:5 is again "Elohim" and some versions translate this as "God". This makes better sense when we accept the range of "Elohim" to include the angels.

Adam and Eve grasped at equality with the angels, and failed to achieve equality, not only in character, but also because they were forbidden access to the tree of life and were cast out of the garden. But the faithful will be given equality with the angels, if they through the gospel seek to be transformed unto the likeness of the character of God revealed through Christ.
1 John 3:1-3 (KJV): "1 Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not. 2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is. 3 And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure."
Psalm 17:15 (KJV): "As for me, I will behold thy face in righteousness: I shall be satisfied, when I awake, with thy likeness."

Kind regards
Trevor

I agree but I don't believe God included all angels in with that statement.

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