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I can't seem to draw a connection between a proposed "unity under Peter" and the description in Acts of the Council of Jerusalem, and the disagreement between Peter and Paul. If Christ were commanding unity in this manner (Peter), both Paul and James exhibit a variance with this "command".
This unity began to dissolve circa 120ad, again in 150ad, and finally in 180ad.
But I wonder. Is there biblical or extrabiblical evidence of unity with the See of Rome that you might point me to before 150ad?
I can't seem to draw a connection between a proposed "unity under Peter" and the description in Acts of the Council of Jerusalem, and the disagreement between Peter and Paul. If Christ were commanding unity in this manner (Peter), both Paul and James exhibit a variance with this "command".
The Unity is with regard to doctrine, not personal behavior.
The decision at the council of Jerusalem was decided by God through a direct revelation to Peter.
ignoring, of course, that James was the one who made the decision.
Thanks for the references to Ignatious of Antioch and Clement of Rome.
I don't know what to conclude about Clement, given his odd reference to Egyptian gods and mythology with the phoenix reference.
Ignatious was on his way to be martyred at Rome.
Were nearly all the early martyrs at Rome? Paul, Peter, Ignatious, Polycarp, ??? who else?
The Unity is with regard to doctrine, not personal behavior.
The decision at the council of Jerusalem was decided by God through a direct revelation to Peter.
What evidence do you have that this is a reason?There are a number of reasons why the Church in Corinth sought help from Rome:
They recognized in Clement the successor of Peter.
cite?They recognized that the center of the faith had moved to Rome because that's were Peter and Paul ended up.
What evidence do you have that Rome claimed this within the 1st century?There was no other Church that claimed authority over other Bishops to whom they could appeal.
Absolutely false.
James just quoted and summarized Peter's statement, which was given to him directly by God.
Perhaps that was a fable spread around by outsiders who wanted to control the church.ignoring, of course, that James was the one who made the decision.
'"It is my opinion," James went on, "that we should not trouble the Gentiles who are turning to God."' Ac 15:19-20 GNBsure. If you want to ignore what it says, that's your perogative.
19"It is my judgment, therefore..... (James)
sure doesn't look like a summerization, it looks very much like a DECISION.
Why was 'the bishop of Antioch' travelling to Rome?St. Ignatius, Bishop of Antioch, writing to the church at Rome while travelling to Rome
This unity began to dissolve circa 120ad, again in 150ad, and finally in 180ad.
But I wonder. Is there biblical or extrabiblical evidence of unity with the See of Rome that you might point me to before 150ad?
Why was 'the bishop of Antioch' travelling to Rome?
Who said that this man was a saint?
Can it be proved that such a person existed?
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