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NEVER GOT a RESPONSETall that did not answer the question. Who are of the House of David in the passage. They have to be Jewish. Which is the problem with your explanation, there are no Jews. Which brings me to something that is over looked. In 722 b.c. they Assyarins came and conquered the 10 northern tribes and guess where they took them, right in the area of Colossae,and Galatia. This seems to be the heart of the problem in solving the problem. People are over looking this. That the initial success was among these groups. Colossaians, Galatians, I & II Peter, 1,2,&,3 John were addressed to many of these Jewish Gnostic Believers. Paul In Glatians referres to these people not as gentiles but Uncircumcised.
Thought this was really good, did not know the connection between Rome & Philippi, however some question come to mind. 1. if Jews were not allowed in Philippi, How come Paul was there?Read up on the Roman history of Philippi.
The last point is important: Emperial decrees for the city of Rome applied as well in Philippi. Around 47-49 AD, the Emperor Claudius decreed that all Jews be exiled from Rome, which included the Christian Jews Priscilla and Aquilla (Acts 18:2). This decree applied as well to Philippi, thus if there had been any Jews there, they would have already been expelled when Paul and Silas arrived and found no synagogue there. Inasmuch as Lydia appears to have already been a God-fearer, there may have been Jews in Philippi previously.
But for sure, the objection to the activities of Paul and Silas differed legally from the objections they faced in other cities. In other cities, the objections were always brought by outraged Jews. In Philippi, it was brought by Romans and specifically for violation of Roman law--a unique occurrence in scripture.
And they brought them to the magistrates, and said, “These men, being Jews, exceedingly trouble our city; and they teach customs which are not lawful for us, being Romans, to receive or observe.” -- Acts 16
But what was the real story there? We know it was not the gospel itself that was the violation of Roman law, because Paul preached that same gospel to a couple of Roman governors literally for years and was never charged for it. What had happened was that Paul and Silas were preaching something that sounded basically Jewish to pagan ears, and Jews were forbidden from being in the city.
bob I hope you know I was challaening him, not asking you to take my word for it.
Bob I am not sure what side you are on, Pro Sabbath or against Sabbath. If you could clarify.
James was the one speaking. And you cut off the thought in the middle. That is why your quote starts with "for", because he is drawing the conclusion from the preceding statement. He said "for the law of Moses..." because He had just been referencing the law of Moses in regards to the Gentiles. The provisions they laid on the Gentiles were from the law, and were the things required of Gentiles outside of Israel.
Once again, no one is claiming the law was done away with, or the Sabbath. The Jewish Christians went on keeping both. And the Gentile Christians were required to keep the portions that applied to Gentiles outside of Israel--which they were.
Thought this was really good, did not know the connection between Rome & Philippi, however some question come to mind. 1. if Jews were not allowed in Philippi, How come Paul was there?
2. If Paul was there couldn't there have been other Jews?
3. Eventually the edict was reversed, we know that because Prycilla and Aquilla went back to Rome and are mentioned in the book of Romans. When was it reversed?
Paul traveled with Greeks and was a Roman citizen himself; he probably didn't look any different from any other traveler. Apparently it took some time before Paul's preaching identified him as a Jew, plus the fact that he cost one businessman a lucrative profit venture.
In Acts 13 Paul simply "walks in" to a synagogue and is immediately asked to speak. He was apparently dressed in the garb of a Pharisee.
Paul says, "to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might win Jews", and "to those who are without law, as without law", in 1 Corinthians 9:19-23. So, I see that possibly Paul could have worn Jewish clothing while doing outreach in a synagogue. Also, if he wore even Pharisaical clothes, but then reached to the Gentiles, this could have helped to show that though he was Jewish he knew how Jesus does want any and all people.I doubt Paul wore his Star of David button on his outer garments.
Yes, Paul walked into a synagogue.
Are you under the impression that his religious preparations to enter the synagogue--because Gentiles were not permitted, one did not simply stroll off the street into a synagogue--would not have made it clear that he was a Jew?
I doubt Paul wore his Star of David button on his outer garments.
Things that are a "shadow" are created things.
outreach, so funny!!!Paul says, "to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might win Jews", and "to those who are without law, as without law", in 1 Corinthians 9:19-23. So, I see that possibly Paul could have worn Jewish clothing while doing outreach in a synagogue. Also, if he wore even Pharisaical clothes, but then reached to the Gentiles, this could have helped to show that though he was Jewish he knew how Jesus does want any and all people.
[If I were doing outreach to a Sabbath keeping group, I would not show up at their meeting place on Sunday
Paul says, "to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might win Jews", and "to those who are without law, as without law", in 1 Corinthians 9:19-23. So, I see that possibly Paul could have worn Jewish clothing while doing outreach in a synagogue. Also, if he wore even Pharisaical clothes, but then reached to the Gentiles, this could have helped to show that though he was Jewish he knew how Jesus does want any and all people.
If I were doing outreach to a Sabbath keeping group, I would not show up at their meeting place on Sunday
Yes. But the question I was responding to was about why the Philippians would not have immediately recognized Paul as a Jew and perhaps stopped him even at the gate.
Why would the Philippians be bent on banning Jews? Given that Paul was a Jew and a Roman citizen - then I suspect he was not the only one-- thus they would be banning Roman citizens and at some point - Rome might complain.
1. There was never a decree to banish Jews from the Roman empire.
2. There was never a decree of the form "ban the Jews from your city if you don't already have a synagogue in your city".
3. In Acts 15 the Jerusalem council says that "in every city" there is a synagogue and Moses is preached. It apparently was not their view that "in every city synagogues are banned".
In Acts 15 "every city" (as in pretty much everywhere) has a synagogue and in Acts 16 - Paul goes to Philippi and of course in Acts 17 and in Acts 18 Paul is in the synagogues preaching to Jews - AND gentiles "Sabbath after Sabbath".
As we know from the scriptural text itself, they did not know Paul was a Roman citizen until he told them...the next day.
They are called tzitzit and tefillin. There is a scriptural basis for wearing them.hey wore tassels and philacteries
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