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Biblical age inflation (passed over elsewhere)

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Deamiter

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Somehow the existance sacred numbers in ancient near east cultures keeps getting overlooked whenever I mention it. Quite simply, people in the Assyrian, Egyptian and Hebrew cultures often chose a number not because it was 'counting-accurate' but because it had a deeper cultural significance. In the Bible, 120 years is considered the most perfect age and is reserved exclusively for Moses. In other Egyptian writings, 110 years is considered the most perfect age and it is interesting that it is reserved for Joseph.

Were the authors lying when using these non-factual numbers? Of course not! To them, expressing honor for one's ancestors through giving them a sacred age was far more accurate than simply recording the number of years they'd lived.

This isn't just a guess either -- it's been well established throughout the ancient middle east, and it'd be a severe mistake to dismiss it simply because in our culture we are obsessed with facts and don't much care about meaning!

Anyway, I challenge anybody who questions the use of sacred numbers in Biblical ages to read this article. Heck, I challenge anybody who finds it plausable to read the article as it outlines the reasons for such a conclusion and cites dozens of resources for anybody who wants to make sure the author is accurately describing the evidence.

Warning -- PDF (675 KB)
http://www.asa3.org/aSA/PSCF/2003/PSCF12-03Hill.pdf
 

Deamiter

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I'm not sure it's covered in the article, but one other comparable case is the Assyrian kings list that inflates ages from hundreds into the thousands of years. Again, it's not meant to lie or fool anybody -- it's simply a literary technique that was used at the time.
 
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laptoppop

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Interesting article. It makes a number of assumptions that I would disagree with - but its consistent with its own worldview.

The primary points of disagreement for me would be
1) The hebrew culture was not the same as other ANE cultures. They were specifically called out by God to be different and always ran into trouble whenever they moved toward the other ones.

2) The article uses a non-global flood chronology.

3) I see the Scriptures as more authoritative and accurate.

4) While it is not specifically said, the most reasonable explanation to me is that Adam and Eve had perfect DNA, which had mutations over time.

Its interesting to note that Methuselah died the year the flood started. Some have interpreted his name as meaning that when he dies the judgment would be sent -- and that his age represents the forbearance of God.
 
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busterdog

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Well, Pop, you just need the cultural context to know that "Be ye seperate" really meant, "be full of it just like your neighbors, but give your God a different name."

I agree. The point of the BIble was to make a distinction in culture, among many other things!

Couldn't you say that the story of Isaac was really a euphemism for actual child sacrifice, for which Abraham was rewarded by a really nice ram, which he traded for the "services" of a friendly professional who bore him another Isaac. It fits the culture, no? (Hoping the TEs can laugh along with me. I know that's a bit over the top.)
 
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crawfish

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There is no question that the Hebrews used the existing literary mechanisms of the world around them. For instance, Solomon's wisdom literature follows a common format used in Mesopotamia and Egypt. Apocalypses (like Daniel, etc) were a popular format at the time in many cultures. It does follow that the authors used conventions familiar to them, using terms that were meaningful to them. When we understand that context we more understand what the original intent of the scriptures is.

Also, holding the scriptures as more "authoritative and accurate" only holds when we're reading the scripture as it was meant to be read. If God didn't mean for the numbers to refer to actual ages, then they don't, and that shouldn't affect our faith.
 
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Willtor

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What color eyes does "perfect" DNA yield? Is brown more perfect than blue? What color skin? How thick or curly was their hair? Were their big toes longer than their second toes?

How does one decide what is "perfect" DNA? Could we, hypothetically, decide who is more genetically "pure" than whom?
 
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shernren

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The primary points of disagreement for me would be
1) The hebrew culture was not the same as other ANE cultures. They were specifically called out by God to be different and always ran into trouble whenever they moved toward the other ones.

But do you have evidence for this? For the fact that the Israelites actually got in trouble with idolatry from the surrounding nations shows that they weren't that different.

Suppose we transported New York back in time to Canaan to be next-door neighbors to the Amalekites. The Amalekites try to seduce them into following Baal and Ashtoreth. What happens?

The Amalekites try to show the Americans rituals and offerings that can be used to appease the fertility gods and bring rain and bounty. But the Americans won't have any of it since they know the scientific bases of rain and soil chemistry. In fact, most of the New Yorkers won't be able to identify with it at all since few of them actually do any real life farming.

The Amalekites try to seduce the Americans into idol-worship through their prostitutes and sexual advances. But the New Yorkers are used to free sex anyways; they don't see anything that specifically relates to Baal and Ashtoreth in the Amalekites' sexual advances, and so they just frolic and have a good time without moving an inch closer to idol-worship.

Finally, the Amalekites in desperation sacrifice a child to try to convince the gods to show a miraculous sign to the unbelieving Americans. But that's the final straw: the New Yorkers' culture is one where children are "cute" and considered an important demographic in society especially in terms of their consumeristic power. They get turned off and wander away.

See? If the Israelites had really been so different from the surrounding cultures, there would have been no way they would have learned idol-worship from them. There would have been no risk of assimilation if they weren't already similar, even after being called by God. Think of the Torah with its rules and regulations. While their theological concepts are revolutionary, none of them reference any scientific, historical, or cultural aspect that was different from their neighbors'. In fact, they bear such similarity that the Bible student often has to learn some of the culture of the Canaanites to fully understand some of the injunctions (for example, the idea of something being "devoted to the Lord" - and then destroyed!) that the Israelites had.

And there is plenty of textual evidence suggesting that the Israelites were to a large degree culturally similar (even if theologically separate) with their neighbors, as Crawfish has suggested. Ironically, a lot of it comes from the Bible.
 
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Deamiter

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Do you deny the existence of sacred numbers used other than in geneologies the same way as other ANE cultures? How many times are we to forgive somebody according to Jesus? When he says "70 times 7" do you really think he's asking you to forgive 490 times?

Do you think it's simply God playing with numbers that the flood took 40 days, the wandering took 40 years, Jesus' fast took 40 days etc...

There have been many articles written by very conservative theologians on sacred numbers in the Bible -- apparently the Hebrew culture was not so different in their use of these numbers so why reject the possibility of their use of sacred numbers in geneologies as well?
3) I see the Scriptures as more authoritative and accurate.
The Hebrew people certainly saw these scriptures as authoritative -- at least as much as you and perhaps more so! But if none of the other ANE cultures thought the use of sacred numbers instead of counting numbers was somehow less accurate, why would you make the assumption that the Hebrew people would write with your standard of 'accuracy?'
Its interesting to note that Methuselah died the year the flood started. Some have interpreted his name as meaning that when he dies the judgment would be sent -- and that his age represents the forbearance of God.
Very interesting indeed! There are dozens of hidden meanings in the ages of the Biblical patriarchs -- that's the whole point! Why should we assume that the Hebrews had an utterly unrecorded rule to be different from other ANE cultures by using actual ages rather than using the more meaningful sacred numbers?

Please forgive me for skipping over evolutionary and age-of-earth points, although they're mentioned briefly in the article, I find them slightly off topic. Not that bringing up your objection based on possibilities of Adam and Eve's perfect genes was a red herring or anything -- it's just not what I started this thread for.
 
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lucaspa

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The primary points of disagreement for me would be
1) The hebrew culture was not the same as other ANE cultures. They were specifically called out by God to be different and always ran into trouble whenever they moved toward the other ones.

The Hebrews were different but still the same in many respects to the other cultures in the area. Yes, many of the Laws, especially the Sabbath, are to set them apart from other peoples. However, it is clear that the Hebrew culture shared many traits with the surrounding cultures. For instance, altho worship of other gods is forbidden, in Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy, those gods are treated as existing. The Hebrews were obviously familiar with the culture of that worship, because they backslide into it!

The Noah stories (yes, there are 2 weaved together in Genesis 6-8) are adapted from the Unt-napushtim story in the Epic of Gilgamesh. Genesis 1 is structured to refute the Babylonian gods in the order they appear in the Enuma Elish. For Genesis 1 to be understood, the people had to be familiar with the Enuma Elish.

Also, the Hebrews share customs of marriage, hospitality, etc. with the surrounding peoples.

2) The article uses a non-global flood chronology.

So? it has been conclusively demonstrated that there never was a global flood.

3) I see the Scriptures as more authoritative and accurate.

Define "authoritative" and "accurate". Authoritative in what matters? What type of accuracy? Accurate theology or completely accurate in all areas?

4) While it is not specifically said, the most reasonable explanation to me is that Adam and Eve had perfect DNA, which had mutations over time.

Doesn't work. First, there is no such thing as "perfect" DNA. "perfect" how? Second, if their DNA was "perfect" then each of them had to have identical DNA, didn't they? That being the case, there is no possibility of the wide variations among humans now. It's simple to do the Mendelian genetics.
 
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