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Augustine on 2 Cor 5:21 (Imputation of Righteiousness)

abacabb3

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He does not say, as some incorrect copies read, He who knew no sin did sin for us, as if Christ had Himself sinned for our sakes; but he says, Him who knew no sin, that is, Christ, God, to whom we are to be reconciled, has made to be sin for us, that is, has made Him a sacrifice for our sins, by which we might be reconciled to God. He, then, being made sin, just as we are made righteousness (our righteousness being not our own, but God's, not in ourselves, but in Him); He being made sin, not His own, but ours, not in Himself, but in us, showed, by the likeness of sinful flesh in which He was crucified, that though sin was not in Him, yet that in a certain sense He died to sin, by dying in the flesh which was the likeness of sin; and that although He Himself had never lived the old life of sin, yet by His resurrection He typified our new life springing up out of the old death in sin. (Chapter 41, Handbook on Hope, Faith, and Love)

I have obviously been on an Augustine kick lately, but I really like how this shows Augustine's understanding of that we are not merely forgiven our sins, but also made righteous. Further, our righteous is not of our own, but exists by our virtue of being in union with Christ.
 

hedrick

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Yes, but there are some implications missing in Augustine's summary. The topic of the section isn't our personal salvation, but reconciliation of the world. I think the explains the odd phrase "become the righteousness of God." Why not just "become righteous." But we are Christ's ambassadors, reconciling the world. We have been given a role in Christ's own mission, and in so doing take on his righteousness. God's righteousness is his commitment to his covenant, and his determination to justify his people (one of Luther's key insights). For humans, righteousness is our proper standing before God as those who are justified by Christ, but in addition to this, we have in Christ become God's righteousness, his reaching out to reconcile the world.

See http://ntwrightpage.com/Wright_Becoming_Righteousness.pdf.
 
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abacabb3

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NT Wright is wrong and completely incomprehensible in my view. The fact that Augustine's view accords with the Reformers' view, which accords to all the modern Reformed thinkers, I think the Spirit has testified that the exegesis is not the antiquity of error, but the truth.

See https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VqZMRWQTpcM
 
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hedrick

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no, thanks. I'm not going to take 1.5 hours to respond to this question. Wright's view is the only one that really makes sense of the phrase, and it also fits the context.

Antiquity seems like a weird advantage in a passage that involves concepts of which the Reformers came to a new understanding.
 
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abacabb3

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Antiquity seems like a weird advantage in a passage that involves concepts of which the Reformers came to a new understanding.

But that's exactly the point. NT Wright asserts the reformers invented some sort of new concept and exegesis.

Problem is, Augustine shared their exegesis, which shows it predates NT Wright's imagination of the idea.

Further, John Piper, James WHite, and others have taken issue with NT Wright's exegesis and conclusions drawn from the Greek. So, I'm not the only one who thinks he does not make sense.
 
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hedrick

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Of course the people you mention are people who are committed to not making any significant changes from traditional Reformed views. If I'm considering places where the Reformers' judgement might need reconsideration, I'd not going to be influenced by people who are ideologically opposed to any reconsideration. You might as well ask a 16th Cent defender of the Pope whether he agreed with Luther's new insights about justification. One basic principle of the Reformation is that tradition is not inerrant.

Luther, in particular, came to a new understanding of the righteousness of God. That is the key concept in this passage. However Calvin (I don't know Luther's exegesis of this passage) didn't use that new understanding here. In my judgement, the Reformation started a process of reassessment, but Luther and Calvin didn't finish it. Many of the basic new concepts are there, but they weren't always applied everywhere they might be.

I'm not a Wright fan-boy. I think he takes some insights that are correct, and important, and overplays them. However I think his exegesis of this passage is right. It's based in a straightforward way on the context of the passage and what righteousness means.

In fact one of my biggest problems with Calvin is his idea of imputing Christ's righteousness. Paul definitely taught imputed righteousness. But he said that our faith is reckoned as righteousness. He didn't typically say that Christ's righteousness is reckoned as ours.

Ironically, this passage it actually an exception, one of the few places where God's righteousness actually is in some sense imputed to us. While I didn't use that wording, it's not a completely nonsensical way to speak of it. We are Christ's ambassadors. We become the righteousness of God. We become part of his commitment to reconcile the world, his righteousness. While I wouldn't normally describe that as imputing God's righteousness to us (because it's not what the Reformers meant by imputed righteousness), I wouldn't reject that characterization.
 
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abacabb3

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I agree with this, I have searched the Scriptures far and wide for the explicit, positive imputation of Christ's righteousness and it is not dwelt upon as much as Christ being credited our sin and our sins being forgiven.

The strongest argument in favor of imputed righteousness we may infer from the dozens of references to being "in Christ." This union with Christ, which is all over Revelation, the OT, in the "in Christ" references, and explicit in Eph 5. This is obviously what Augustine seized upon in his exegesis on 2 Cor 5:21. If we are in Christ, then we are literally seen as Christ upon judgment, because we are a corporate entity, the very body of Christ with Him as our head.

"He has now reconciled you in His fleshly body through death, in order to present you before Him holy and blameless and beyond reproach" (Col 1:22).

So, we are not only forgiven, but we are literally holy before God. Where do we get this holiness? For holiness comes from being good, not merely being forgiven. We get this from our union with Christ.
 
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hedrick

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Let me try to give you an argument.

I am in fact willing to speak of Christ's righteousness imputed to us, as long as you don't try to read it into passage where it isn't present.

Many Reformed seem to think that the point of Christ’s death was to let God forgive our sins. In my view, there’s no problem with God forgiving sins. The OT and Jesus’ own teachings say that God is happy to forgive sins if we, as his followers, are repentant. If you search the Bible, OT and NT, for uses of righteousness applied to humans, you’ll find plenty of them. And in general they do not refer to people who are sinless. They refer to people who are followers of God, who care about other people, and who repent when they sin. Righteous means living as God expects, but specifically living as a follower of God.

Paul teaches justification by faith. But faith unites us with Christ. It makes us one of his people. Thus it makes us righteous. But is that Christ’s righteousness imputed? I think so. We can argue about how people in the OT and current members of other religions might be saved. But we are justified because we are followers of Christ, who act as his servants. But we’re not righteous as isolated individuals. We are righteous as Christ’s followers. He died to establish the new covenant. But covenants constitute a people. Jesus, as the Son of God, is righteous in himself. But we aren’t; we’re righteous only as his followers. (Remember, I think the essence of being righteous is being a follower of God; for us, that means a follower of Christ.) The reason faith in Christ justifies us is because it makes us one of Christ’s people, and we share in Christ’s righteousness, the status he has before God as his Son.

Although Paul never quite says this, I think it’s consistent with what he says.

The problem with White’s reading of this passage is that it doesn’t see the big picture. Christ became sin to save us, through the double exchange described in Rom 6. But that’s not the point Paul is making *here.* Here he’s going beyond that. Christ became sin not just to save us as individuals, but to make us part of God’s own righteousness, his commitment to redeem the world. If you look at the context, you can see that that’s the point he’s making here. Otherwise 5:21 becomes a non-sequitur.

In fact it’s quite likely that the “we” in 5:21 is specifically the apostles. In 5:16 through 6:1 Paul is probably speaking of his own role. God is appealing to the Corinthians through him, and in 6:1 Paul is working as a partner with God (Christ?) — using the translation “as we work together with him.” It is Paul specifically who has become the agent of God’s righteousness to work with the Corinthians. But I think it actually applies to all Christians. We're all Christ's ambassadors, even if that's not the point Paul was making at this point.
 
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hedrick

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I should note that Augustine's comments, quoted in the OP, would be just fine if they were applied to Rom 6. Unfortunately they miss what is going on in that part of 2 Cor.

My suspicion is that theologians tend to have their own hobby horses, and see them everywhere.
 
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abacabb3

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I appreciate your comments, though I would add that my sense of the Scripture is that the only way individuals are saved is because they are saved as a corporate body that is in union with Christ. What is true of the body is true of the body's members, and what is true of its members is true of the body.
 
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abacabb3

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I'm bumping this thread, simply because I came across another relevant passage on the topic from Augustine:

This is the righteousness of God, which was veiled in the Old Testament, and is revealed in the New; and it is called the righteousness of God, because by His bestowal of it He makes us righteous, just as we read that salvation is the Lord's, because He makes us safe. And this is the faith from which and to which it is revealed,— from the faith of them who preach it, to the faith of those who obey it. By this faith of Jesus Christ— that is, the faith which Christ has given to us— we believe it is from God that we now have, and shall have more and more, the ability of living righteously; wherefore we give Him thanks with that dutiful worship with which He only is to be worshipped (Chapter 18, The Spirit and the Letter).
 
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Calvinist Dark Lord

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"2+2=4"

"You say that only because you are a mathematician."

See C.S. Lewis essay Bulverism: or the foundation of 20th Century Thought.

The difficulty is that criticising the messenger's motives is not a rebuttal to the proposition.

All that aside, have you even considered Piper and White's arguments from the Greek Grammar, Syntax and Context of Augustine's writings?

Providing rebuttal to what they actually argue would be a stronger basis i think than criticising their motives.
 
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