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are Paul's lost letters implicitly a part of canon

ViaCrucis

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For reasons we can only speculate upon, some of Paul's letters were not preserved and circulated. The two I am aware of was a previous letter to the Corinthian church (prior to 1 Corinthians) and a letter to the Laodicean church. We don't have them, which means they were not preserved, circulated, and copied. Why that is so is pure guesswork.

When the Church began to incorporate the letters of Paul into their liturgical reading cycles is also speculative. By the time anyone is talking about these things, the thirteen Pauline epistles we know were already established as canonical Scripture, firmly included in the cycle of Scripture readings.

I would argue that had the lost letters of Paul been perceived as important enough to include in the canonical Pauline corpus then we would have them. This, of course, is me placing a great deal of weight on the judgment of the ancient community of faith. I am somewhat confident that had those lost Pauline works been seen as valuable enough for circulation, preserving, and liturgical use we would have them. If we found them today, tucked away in some jar out in the desert, they would not be Holy Scripture, they would not be Canon, they would be incredibly fascinating and important for their historical value, and I would even think they would be highly valuable in the same way that the writings of the most ancient fathers are valuable--but they would not be Canonical Scripture.

It's okay to have writings which are valuable to the informing of our faith without them being Holy Scripture, I think works such as the Didache, the letters of Ignatius, and Clement's epistle (as examples) are immensely important. But they aren't Scripture. And the Didache and Clement were actually treated as Scripture by some in antiquity, which is more than can be said about the lost letters of St. Paul.

-CrytpoLutheran
 
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ViaCrucis

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In the case of 2 Peter, we need to take seriously the fact that it was among the works called Antilegomena in antiquity, and prevailing scholarly opinion is that it likely wasn't written by St. Peter, but dates from a later period (2nd century). 2 Peter, thus, in this instance very likely points us toward the fact that Paul's letters had received widespread acceptance in the 2nd century.

As such I think some caution should be used with this use of 2 Peter, since it is quite probable that it is a later work. That isn't to say it isn't Scripture (its acceptance is well established today), only that for this sort of historical purpose it may not be the most helpful.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Meowzltov

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No. It is the Church, via the union of Bishops, which has the authority to declare canon. Canon was already declared. It is closed.
 
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DamianWarS

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this may be a digressed topic but is not the Antilegomena a part of canon because of it's alleged authorship by the apostles? Yes I know it was widely used/valued in the early church but does it not go back to the authorship of the book as to the reason why they were valued? If the authorship fails does not everything that it holds collapse with it including how the early church (or later church) used it since they only used it because they thought it's authorship was genuine.
 
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