BS'D
The topic of the christian gospels in Aramiac has always intrested me. I'd kinda like to see people expound apaun that. I was going to try and Ask the most esteemed Dr. James Trimm- but he has left us. I'll pose my questions here and maybe people will reaspond ?...Thoughts or opinions, I'd love to hear them.
Now, Trimm liked to claim that there had to be a "Aramiac" orginal of the gospels that were kept by Jewish circles. How he comes to this conclusion is iffy and to me, absurd.
Some people wonder why so many questions about Trimm's credibaility always follow him. Well, allow me to demonstrate....Let me repost a comment he makes;
"Many synoptic variances point to an underlying Semitic text. For example:
Mt. 4:19 = Lk. 5:10 "fissher's of men"/"catch men"
= TZAYADA (Aram.) "
What he is trying to show here that the "poetic language" of the Christian Gospels mimics much of "Aramiac" and is rampant throughught the christian texts. What he will not tell you ( or maybe he doesn't know himself ) that he is baseing his Aramiac off Palestinian Aramiac, which did not exist during the times of J-man, infact, the type of Aramiac spoken in that region during the time would be considered a branch of "Middle Aramiac" that is closesly related to the Syrian tounge, even more related that actual Hebrew and Aramiac.
So what does this mean? His grammar is off. His vocabulary congugation doesn't match up to the Historcal tounge of the time, but one that coems from a much latter date.
I have many more "Observations" I have about his work he posted here, but I'd like to keep it short.
The topic of the christian gospels in Aramiac has always intrested me. I'd kinda like to see people expound apaun that. I was going to try and Ask the most esteemed Dr. James Trimm- but he has left us. I'll pose my questions here and maybe people will reaspond ?...Thoughts or opinions, I'd love to hear them.
Now, Trimm liked to claim that there had to be a "Aramiac" orginal of the gospels that were kept by Jewish circles. How he comes to this conclusion is iffy and to me, absurd.
Some people wonder why so many questions about Trimm's credibaility always follow him. Well, allow me to demonstrate....Let me repost a comment he makes;
"Many synoptic variances point to an underlying Semitic text. For example:
Mt. 4:19 = Lk. 5:10 "fissher's of men"/"catch men"
= TZAYADA (Aram.) "
What he is trying to show here that the "poetic language" of the Christian Gospels mimics much of "Aramiac" and is rampant throughught the christian texts. What he will not tell you ( or maybe he doesn't know himself ) that he is baseing his Aramiac off Palestinian Aramiac, which did not exist during the times of J-man, infact, the type of Aramiac spoken in that region during the time would be considered a branch of "Middle Aramiac" that is closesly related to the Syrian tounge, even more related that actual Hebrew and Aramiac.
So what does this mean? His grammar is off. His vocabulary congugation doesn't match up to the Historcal tounge of the time, but one that coems from a much latter date.
I have many more "Observations" I have about his work he posted here, but I'd like to keep it short.