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BeforeTheFoundation

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I'm confused. Are you disagreeing with me?

but more recently it has turned out that some of them were originally written in aramaic.
Really? hmmm... I was not aware of that, what are your sources? I would really be interested in reading more on that.
 
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ebia

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I'm confused. Are you disagreeing with me?
Not really.


Really? hmmm... I was not aware of that, what are your sources? I would really be interested in reading more on that.
Sorry - it's been a while since I read up on them in detail from that perspective and I can't recall the sources.
 
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winsome

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I wouldn't agree 100% with BigNorsk. I think he does not give enough importance to the stamp of approval on the full set of books by Rome. From the time of the list of Pope Damasus I (382) there was only one set officially approved even if scholars were less enthusiatic.

Also St. Jerome was not so dismissive of the "aprocrypha" as it would appear.

"What sin have I committed if I follow the judgment of the churches? But he who brings charges against me for relating [in my preface to the book of Daniel] the objections that the Hebrews are wont to raise against the story of Susannah [Dan. 13], the Song of the Three Children [Dan. 3:29–68, RSV-CE], and the story of Bel and the Dragon [Dan. 14], which are not found in the Hebrew volume, proves that he is just a foolish sycophant. I was not relating my own personal views, but rather the remarks that they are wont to make against us. If I did not reply to their views in my preface, in the interest of brevity, lest it seem that I was composing not a preface, but a book, I believe I added promptly the remark, for I said, ‘This is not the time to discuss such matters’" (Against Rufinius 11:33 [A.D. 401]).

There is an excellent article with a lot of depth discussing this here http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03267a.htm

 
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BigNorsk

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I hope I didn't sound dimissive. The books we call the Apochrypha were treated as important and were read in the churches, but they weren't used for doctrine. So just like there were so many different senses of words used, they were scripture in the sense of being profitable to read, but they weren't scripture in the sense of being authoritative for doctrine.

Cardinal Cajetan gave a rosetta stone type of statement in his Commentary on All the Authentic Historical Books of the Old Testament in 1532. (Luther's complete Bible was published in 1534)

He says: Translation from William Webster's The Church of Rome at the Bar of History

And in case anyone is wondering, it's really not just my observation you can read similar statement whereBruce Metzger points out,
I think those who throw away the Apocrypha entirely go too far and are not in agreement with the historic church. Those who turn them into sources of doctrine also go too far. I am in agreement with those who would use terms like ecclesiastical canon to describe them.

Marv
 
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winsome

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Sorry, I didn't mean to give the impression you were dismissive. I think you just a very fair summary, although I'm not really very well up on this topic. I just felt you gave a little too much emphasis to scholars and not to the statements from Rome and councils..

winsome
 
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SummaScriptura

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What if it can be demonstrated that the books perjoritively referred to as Apocrypha were in use as scripture from the earliest days of the Church?

If you read the roll-call of the faithful from Hebrews chapter 11, there is an underlying reliance and familiarity by the writer with the Greek Old Testament (the LXX), in preference to the Hebrew Old Testament:

Per Hebrews 11, subsequent to the universe being created by God's word, there were created things which came from things "not visible"; Genesis 1:3, in the LXX, has the formless earth as "invisible". In Hebrews 11, Enoch is said to have "pleased God" and then he "was not found"; Genesis 5:24-25 in the LXX substitutes the familiar "Enoch walked with God" with Enoch being pleasing to God, and further changes "he was not" to "he was not found". In Hebrews 11, Jacob is said to have "worshipped on his staff"; the last verse of Genesis 47 in the LXX has Jacob doing obeisance on his staff, not his bedpost, etc.

Continuing on with the chapter we are confronted with a veritable who's who of the Old Testament as the writer applauds the faith of the forefathers in a loosely chronological order.

Then the chapter leaves behind the familiar territory of the Hebrew Old Testament stories and progresses to describe events that do not fit very well into the books of the Hebrew Old Testament, "Some were tortured, refusing to accept release, so that they might rise again to a better life. Others suffered mocking and flogging, and even chains and imprisonment. They were stoned, they were sawn in two, they were killed with the sword. They went about in skins of sheep and goats, destitute, afflicted, mistreated— of whom the world was not worthy— wandering about in deserts and mountains, and in dens and caves of the earth."

Ah, but if one is using the Greek O.T. instead of the Hebrew O.T., suddenly, most of these references fit right in! The loose chronology of O.T. history outlined in Hebrews 11 continues right along with the history we find in those "extra" books.

So,

1. The oldest extant copies of the LXX have the books perjoritively called "Apocrypha" included
2. The writer of Hebrews draws upon the Greek Old Testament not the Hebrew in chapter 11
3. The writer then refers to events which are not found in the Hebrew Old Testament but which ARE found in our oldest Septuagint text

It is my conclusion therefore, during the 1st century the Septuagint already included the books referred to by modern detractors as "Apocrypha". So we conclude those books were used as scripture by the Church from the time of the Apostles.

Helpful resources:
NETS- New English Translation of the Septuagint
ESV- English Standard Version Bible with Apocrypha
 
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