Any scriptures related to Polygamy?

I have yet to see any scriptures that I understand to be prohibiting polygamy. God seems to encourage it in parts of the Bible.

Personally one wife is more than enough for me!

Titus 3:2 and 3:12 require bishops and deacons to be monogamous.

It is clear in scripture that those deacons, elders, and, bishops can not have more than one wife.

Under Jewish law (at least during biblical times, I'm not sure what the rules are now) polygammy was permitted.

It is never directly stated in the new testament that polygammy is forbidden to christians other than deacons, elders, and bishops. However, if you examine Jesus' teachings on divorce it becomes clear that polygammy was never God's intention and it isn't his perfect will for mankind. This is also implicit in Paul's teachings on marriage.

Jesus says of divorce that it was never intended, but it was allowed because of the hardness of man's heart. He goes on to say that God's will from the beginning was that a husband would cleave to his wife and the two would become one flesh. The clear image is one man and one woman (thus the TWO). It is clearly meant to be a union of two who become one. It is hard to argue that the same imagery could be applied to three or four.
Likewise Paul teaches that the wife's body belongs to the husband, and the husband's body belongs to the wife. If a husband takes more than one wife he would then be giving to one what belongs to someone else.

The conlcusion is that God allowed polygammy because of the hardness of man's heart. The reason it was not forbidden outright to all was again a provision for the condition of mankind at that time. Even today this provision must be maintained for some societies where polygammy is accepted. Consider if a person is converted to Christianity and they already have 3 wives. Is it right to make them divorce? Especially considering that in many of those cultures, to divorce the wives would leave them without support and without recourse.

The forbidding of polygammy to deacon's, priests(elders), and Bishops demonstrates what God's intention was, and what his highest standard of holiness is. The restrictions applied to who can be ordained is because they must be the highest examples of christian virtue and morality both to the congregation, and to the community in which they live.

Simon_Templar said:

It is clear in scripture that those deacons, elders, and, bishops can not have more than one wife.

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Actually I'm not sure it is as clear as some people would like it to be. The verses in 1 Timothy 3:2 and 3:12 say literally that the overseer and the deacon should be "a one woman man" μιας γυναικος ανδρα. In helping us understand what this means we can look to 1 Timothy 5:9 where it tell us about what qualifies a widow to get her put on the widow list. Here Paul writes that she must be "a one man woman" ενος ανδρος γυνη which is the exact opposite of what is said about the overseer and the deacon. Polyandry was not a practice at that time and so the text is generally interpreted that she must not have been divorced. It makes most sense that the earlier verses of 3: 2, 12 actually are saying that the overseer and deacon should not be divorced. Furthermore, polygamy was not a Greek custom at that time so it makes no sense for Paul to address it as an issue.

I still have yet to find a verse in the Bible clearly speaking against polygamy. The usual arguments require wrestling with verses that do not even address the issue.

I'm not convinced that Jesus' comments on Divorce are appropreate to apply to poligamy. As I read Mt.19 jesus is talking about divorce the breaking up of a marriage. Many commintators then take this and apply it to marring more than one wife. The parellel works nicely. But it is completely opposite of what Jesus is addressing.
This would also make Jesus go agianst the OT verses that clearly in my say God has not problem with poligamy to the point that He commands Leivite marriage. That He himself is portrained as a poligamist being married to Isreal and Judea.
Also in the NT Jesus tells the parable of the son of Man coming to marry 10 virgins. I have problems with the handmadien view.

Monogamy was a greek Roman idea, not a Jewish ideal as is seem by the Roman law only allowed Jews to have more than one wife at the time of Jesus.

dayhiker

Piedpiper123 said:

Actually I'm not sure it is as clear as some people would like it to be. The verses in 1 Timothy 3:2 and 3:12 say literally that the overseer and the deacon should be "a one woman man" μιας γυναικος ανδρα. In helping us understand what this means we can look to 1 Timothy 5:9 where it tell us about what qualifies a widow to get her put on the widow list. Here Paul writes that she must be "a one man woman" ενος ανδρος γυνη which is the exact opposite of what is said about the overseer and the deacon. Polyandry was not a practice at that time and so the text is generally interpreted that she must not have been divorced. It makes most sense that the earlier verses of 3: 2, 12 actually are saying that the overseer and deacon should not be divorced. Furthermore, polygamy was not a Greek custom at that time so it makes no sense for Paul to address it as an issue.

I still have yet to find a verse in the Bible clearly speaking against polygamy. The usual arguments require wrestling with verses that do not even address the issue.

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this response would go to dayhiker as well.

The issue in Jesus' divorce teachings is that it is considered adultery for a person to remarry after a divorce. If you are permitted to have more than one wife, marrying a new wife should not be considered adultery, but it is.
Notice that Jesus isn't talking about merely having sex with a woman that your not married to, he's talking about marrying another woman.
If you are allowed to marry more than one woman, then remarriage after divorce should be allowable, but it isn't.

Thus it is pretty clear that to marry more than one woman is adultery according to God's intent for marraige. God allowed it in the past, just as he allowed divorce under the law of moses.

Going on to the timothy passages, your arguments here don't help your case. Whether you interpet the passage to say "husband of one wife" or "a one woman man" it doesn't change the fact that you can only have ONE WOMAN. There is no way you can logically argue that a man with 5 wives is a one woman man.

What you point out doesn't allow for polygammy, what it does is disallows divorce.

If anything, the point you made about the translation of "one woman man" and "one man woman" stresses the sanctity of the union between one woman and one man.

Think about it this way. If Paul had wanted to say "you can only be married to one woman" he could have said so. If he had wanted to say "you can not have been divorced" he could have said that also in no uncertain terms. What he did was effectively say both in one phrase.. you must be a one woman man.

Well I have never claimed to be a good thinker.

I agree with your points. They are perfectly logical and make sense of the text. I stand corrected.

I agree that polygamy was not condemned as sins like homosexuality. If it had been condemned in the NT, just think of the ramifications.

So many at that time who were pagans were coming to faith with their many wives. Just think of how they would have been treated if the NT spoke against it. Whole families would have been torn apart, people would reject the faith based on the possibility of their families being broken.