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AND WHEN WERE YOU CIRCUMCISED OR UNCIRCUMCISED ?

Dan Perez

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This is what COL 2:11 talking about and many do not understand Circumcision or Uncircumcision .

Col 2:11 says the following .

#1 WHOM // HOS ,is a RELATIVE PRONOUN in the Dative Case and in the Singular .

#2 YE are CIRCUNCISED // PERITEMNO is in the AORIST TENSE , means it has happened already and is in the PASSIVE VOICE , means Christ is

doing the Action , and in the INDICITIVE MOOD , which means you better believe it and in the Plural .

#3 WITH THE CIRCUMCISION // PERITEMNE , in the Dative Case , which means Personal Relations in the Singular , meaning to each believer .

#4 MADE WITHOUT HANDS // ACHEIRPOIETOS is also in the Dative Case and in the Singular to one believer at a time .

# 5 PUTTING OFF // APEKDYSIS , is in the Dative Case , and in the Singular .

# 6 THE // HO , which is a DEFINITE ARTICLE and is pointing to the next Greek word .

# 7 BODY // SOMA , is also in the GENTIVE CASE and is Singular and the NEUTER , meaning Male or Female

# 8 OF THE // HO , is another DIFINITE ARTICLE is also GENTIVE CASE , in the Plural

# 9 SINS // HAMARTIA , in the GENTIVE CASE in the PLURAL

#10 , OF THE // another DIFINITE ARTICLE , in the GENTIVE CASE , in the Plural .

# 11 FLESH // SARX also in the GENTIVE CASE , means to Define in the Singular .

# 12 THE // HO also a DEFINITE ARTICLE , which is pointing to the NEXT Greek word , Circumcision .

# 13 CIRCUMCISION // PERITOME is in the DATIVE CASE , shows , personal relations , in the Singular , to each believer

# 14 OF CHRIST // CHRISTO , in the Genitive Case , in the Singular

And your thoughts as to why Gentiles where not Circumcision in the BEGINING ?

And why was Christ Circumcised at the eighth Day ??

dan p
 

David Lamb

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That spiritual circumcision (not made with hands) happens when a sinner is converted. Why were Gentiles not circumcised in the beginning? Well, assuming that you are now talking of physical circumcision of male children, this was a sign given by God to His Old Testament people Israel. Christ was circumcised on the eighth day because that is what God said:

“2 "Speak to the children of Israel, saying: ‘If a woman has conceived, and borne a male child, then she shall be unclean seven days; as in the days of her customary impurity she shall be unclean. 3 ‘And on the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised.” (Le 12:2-3 NKJV)

I am not sure why your question is in the Dispensationalism forum though.
 
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Dan Perez

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Because of at least 2 verses that Paul wrote .

# 1 In Gal 2:8 where Paul is preaching the GOSPEL of the UNCIRCUMCION !!

#2 And in that same verse , Peters CIRCUMCISION is not called a Gospel and your thoughts as why it is not CALLED

an Gospel ?? .

# 3 And because of Col 2:11 !!

# 4 Phil 3:3 says we are the Circumcision !!@

Your thoughts ??

dan p
 
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David Lamb

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Well, Galatians 2:7-8 say:

“7 But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter 8 (for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles),” (Ga 2:7-8 NKJV)

Peter was called to preach the gospel mainly to his fellow Jews, here called "the circumcised." Paul was called to preach the gospel mainly to Gentiles, here called "the uncircumcised."

Colossians 2:11 is about spiritual circumcision:

“In Him you were also circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of the sins of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ,” (Col 2:11 NKJV)

This spiritual circumcision happens to every sinner who is converted and comes to know Christ as Saviour.

Regarding Philippians 3:3, it's helpful to look at it in context:

“2 Beware of dogs, beware of evil workers, beware of the mutilation! 3 For we are the circumcision, who worship God in the Spirit, rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh, 4 ¶ though I also might have confidence in the flesh. If anyone else thinks he may have confidence in the flesh, I more so: 5 circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, [of] the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of the Hebrews; concerning the law, a Pharisee;” (Php 3:2-5 NKJV)

There were false teachers in the early church, who were telling Gentile Christians that they had to be physically circumcised in order to be saved. Paul is warning the Philippian Christians against this, telling them that what matters is spiritual circumcision, not the circumcision of the flesh. This is even clearer in Romans:

“28 For he is not a Jew who [is one] outwardly, nor [is] circumcision that which [is] outward in the flesh; 29 but [he is] a Jew who [is one] inwardly; and circumcision [is that] of the heart, in the Spirit, not in the letter; whose praise [is] not from men but from God.” (Ro 2:28-29 NKJV)
 
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Dan Perez

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And like Phip 3:6 it says that concerning righteousness which is in the LAW , having become FAULTLESS .

And there are only two more that are called FAULTLESS and they are found in Luke 1:6 and I know that many say that

Paul took a vow and was stopped by the Jews , But Paul in Acts 28:25-28 that Israel was to be set aside .

dan p
 
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