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In Psalms 45:9 David's wives(princesses) are refered to as honorable women. So, why would God refer to multiple wives as honorable women if He did not approve of them? Isn't being married to an honorable woman a blessing? Wouldn't two honorable women be even more of a blessing?rnmomof7 said:Just show us where God blessed them and encouraged them seebs.
Excellent point, Hugh. Historically, it is well known that polygamy was common among the wealthy Jews of Paul's day. The early Church was comprised of mostly Jews, some of which were wealthy. Even under Roman rule, the Jews were allowed to have multiple wives.Prakk said:In suggesting that because and Elder is to be husband of one wife, we all should be monogamous, you essentially suggest that no one should be a woman either. Polygynous men are disqualified from the office of Elder, women are disqualified. Finally, this qualification of monogamy for Elders virtually proves that many men were not monogamous. It's like saying, "No Elder Shall Wear Old Spice After Shave." Why bother? There was no Old Spice After Shave. Likewise why prohibit polygynous men from being an Elder, unless there were polgynous men in the churches.
Hugh McBryde
rnmomof7 said:You assume because God protected the first wife that he approved of the polygamy . That is not well founded.
rnmomof7 said:But the truth is, once David repented his sin, he sent away his other wives and was a husband to only Bethsheba. See that is the difference.
The punishment that came as a result of David's lust is seen in the offspring
rnmomof7 said:See II Samuel 12:9-12. "Now therefore," said God (Verse 10), "the sword shall never depart from thine house; BECAUSE THOU HAST DESPISED ME, and hast taken the wife of Uriah the Hittite to be thy wife." Notice, David despised GOD -- not merely the commandment of God, as in Verse 9, but also the very PERSON of God! He did it by taking this woman as his wife. Therefore the sword was never to depart from his house.
rnmomof7 said:"Thus saith the Eternal, Behold, I will raise up evil against thee out of THINE OWN HOUSE ...." His own house included his wives and children. WHAT evil? God has just said the SWORD will now come upon his house his family. God continues: ".... and I will take thy wives before thine eyes and give them unto thy neighbor, and he shall lie with thy wives in the sight of this sun."
rnmomof7 said:After that David was away from Jerusalem. But, returning there were ten concubines (his former harem). Here is what David did with them: "And David came to his house at Jerusalem; and the king took the ten women his concubines, WHOM HE HAD LEFT TO KEEP THE HOUSE, and put them in ward, and fed them, but WENT NOT IN UNTO THEM. So they were shut up unto the day of their death, living in widowhood" (II Sam. 20:3).
rnmomof7 said:so he put away his other wives (II Sam. 19:6)
rnmomof7 said:BECAUSE THEY TOO HAD BEEN DEFILED by a neighbor (II Sam. 12).
rnmomof7 said:David had truly repented. He practiced polygamy NO MORE! When David was becoming old, he went "fully after the Eternal" (I Kings 11:6). He was "a man after God's own heart," because his heart was right. He did repent. He had been a warrior. In his younger life he went after many women. He had sown his wild oats. BUT HE REPENTED!
rnmomof7 said:No the line of Jesus was through Solomon, the son of a SINGLE wife. He was not polygamous at the time of Solomon's birth .
rnmomof7 said:God gave this absolute COMMAND regarding future kings of Israel -- telling them they must not do as the pagan nations around them (whose kings had their harems): "NEITHER SHALL HE MULTIPLY WIVES TO HIMSELF!" Saul, Israel's first king, DISOBEYED that command. He let demons take hold of him.
That sin brought David to the throne
rnmomof7 said:God deposed him, and put David in his place. David started out in polygamy, but God punished him. HE REPENTED thoroughly, and he finished his reign with his ONLY living wife. Solomon finished his life in polygamy and idolatry -- and God, in punishment, rended the KINGDOM away from his son, Rehoboam.
rnmomof7 said:GOD DID NOT CONDONE POLYGAMY! He PUNISHED those who practiced it! It was ALWAYS SIN! It is SIN today!
rnmomof7 said:Mat 19:8
He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. It was because of the hardness of their hearts not his approval .
The majority of the people in the OT economy couldnt afford additional wives. Thats why they were ditching the old wife to get a new one. This was a careless disregard for the lifetime commitment the a marriage is to include. To have many wives was seen as a sign of power and wealth, which most OT early Israel was not. There are 23 OT men mentioned within scripture that had multiple wives, yet no single word of rebuke or censure for any of them.rnmomof7 said:Incidentally, the belief that a lot of people a plurality of wives in the Old Testament is not reality . It was very uncommon to have many wives . Look at Noah, he had only had one wife. Adam had one wife. Abraham had one wife. It is true that he bore Ishmael by a concubine,but clearly as we read the scripture we see the fruit of that sin.
rnmomof7 said:Isaac had one wife. Jacob had only one wife after his conversion .
Moses had one wife. Some of the kings began to have harems. They followed in the footsteps of the heathen kings.
rnmomof7 said:But ordinarily in the Old Testament there was one wife. There are some exceptions, but they are really rare, as compared with the usual. We see that there was division and sin as the result of polygamy not blessings as one receives when they are in the will of God.
rnmomof7 said:Matthew 19:4 it says, "Have you not read that He who made them from the beginning made them male and female? For this reason a man (a man, not men) shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh" (not the three shall become one, or the four shall become one, or the five shall become one, because there is more than one wife or more than one husband). "The two shall become one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man put asunder." That is the Biblical rule. One husband and one wife, and they become one flesh.
rnmomof7 said:May I ask if you are a member of that Liberated "Christian " group that advocates polygamy and or spouse swapping?
You position seems similar to theirs
Eph. 3:20 said:All very good objections, but I think youre reading a lot into the passages thats not there and these overstatements directly conflict with some scripture as I will show. It seems the case as a whole is built upon statements that arent there (not directed at you, these are the general objections). One thing that is great about the God we serve is He wrote down for us what might keep us from His blessing, what He allowed and what He doesnt allow and those things dont change until He speaks a change to it.
(Ex. 21:10) If he takes for himself another woman...Lets stop right here. Why go any further with this text if this is something that God doesnt allow? He protects the first wife because God is in the protection business. He protects the first or the 82nd wife...it doesnt matter. But one must ask, why would make rules of conduct for a conduct He forbids? What a perfect place to tell us that He at least somehow displeased by this practice....Its because He doesnt forbid it and it in no way displeased Him. If that is the case it will have to be proven in another verse, this one says nothing to that effect.
Yes this is correct. But notice, there are two offenses. He has taken the wife of Uriah (offense #1), you have struck down Uriah the Hittite with the sword.
The evil was his two offenses that were mentioned in the passage.
".... and I will take thy wives before thine eyes and give them unto thy neighbor, and he shall lie with thy wives in the sight of this sun."
This is in direct connection to David taking the wife of another. God lets another man take his wives, and he lets the man lay with them in broad daylight as humiliation for his crime so all would know.
The sword shall never depart from your house, because you have taken his wife to be your wife and have killed him with the sword of the sons of Ammon.
The sword not departing in Davids house is in direct connection to the sword that struck down Uriah. It was a exact exchange for the violations David had committed. There are no other sins mentioned.
This was Levitical law that a man could not take back his wife/concubines a second time after they had been with another man.
Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines (1 Kg. 11:3). God promised to bless Solomon if he walks in all Gods laws. But not a syllable of censure about his extreme polygamy and concubinage. The only censure is his marrying pagan women against Gods commands, (11:2 4,5), and that he turned his heart away from the Lord, (11:4,9,10,11,33, 9:4, 6) And what sense does it make to think that God was incensed about Solomons marriages to pagan wives and thus rebuke him for it, yet He never rebukes him for marrying multiple Israelite wives?
To condone something is to:
To overlook, forgive, or disregard (an offense) without protest or censure.(The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fourth Edition)
God did indeed condone this practice. He never punished those for practicing it. If He did, it should be easy enough to produce a passage that demonstrates God condemning this practice and the ensuing punishment because of it. It was not sin then and it is not sin today. You must have Biblical proof to justify this claim.
However, He never, ever, ever condoned actual sin.
The subject of this passage is clearly divorce. The illegal practice of men ditching their wives to get a new one. This passage aligns itself with Malachi 2:14. The question itself clearly spells out the context of the passage,Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any cause at all? (vs. 3) This has nothing to do with adding more wives. It has everything to do with honoring the covenant relationship till death do us part.
The majority of the people in the OT economy couldnt afford additional wives. Thats why they were ditching the old wife to get a new one. This was a careless disregard for the lifetime commitment the a marriage is to include. To have many wives was seen as a sign of power and wealth, which most OT early Israel was not. There are 23 OT men mentioned within scripture that had multiple wives, yet no single word of rebuke or censure for any of them.
Isaac had one wife.
Jacobs wives both came after his conversion. Then Jacob made a vow saying If God will be with me and keep me on this journey...then the Lord will be my God. (Gen. 28:20) And this stone will I set up as a pillar, will be Gods house, and of all that thou dost give me;I will give a tenth. (Gen. 28:22)
Moses had two wives.
Strife happened in the most monogamous marriages; Adam and Eves troubles with Cain for one. It is just human nature, fallen human nature. The more people you have involved in anything, the more problems you will encounter.
Are we to say that it is possible for two to become one flesh, but impossible for three? If so then Jacob and Leah were one flesh because she was his first wife. Doesnt the Trinity claim three as one? Can we see the absurdity?
How do 3 become one flesh? Excuse my bluntness but how does a woman become one with her "sister wife"
So we then to presume that a man becomes one with one and then with another and another. Other wives are not one flesh with the other wives.
It is blasphemy to compare the lust of men with the Trinity.
The trinity is unique in that they always were and always will be one..they did not have to "become one"
I have viewed their site. I dont agree with everything they teach, but some of it I do agree with. I dont think they have a membership.
Are you a "christian polygamist"? (a contradiction in terms to me ).
What is your churches position on this?I am not the one in need of help actuallyHope this helps.
Eph. 3:20
You like to quote Corinthians to imply that there is no sin as long as something is done in love .
That is a misuse of scripture I will not go into that now.
But I think we have to look at the totality of Paul to the Corinthians
1Cr 7:1
Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: [It is] good for a man not to touch a woman.
1Cr 7:2
Nevertheless, [to avoid] fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.
1Cr 7:3
Let the husband render unto the wife
due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband.
1Cr 7:4
The wife hath not power of her own body, but the husband: and likewise also the husband hath not power of his own body, but the wife.Eph 5:28
So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself.
Eph 5:33
Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his wife even as himself; and the wife [see] that she reverence [her] husband.
The church was surrounded with pagan and godless people. They were surrounded by a hebrew culture that still had remnants of polygamy and concubines .
But over and over the NT reinforces the correctness of monogamy in their teachings and in their laws for leadership.
The church is the bride of Christ. He is not a polygamist
truthnluv said:In Psalms 45:9 David's wives(princesses) are refered to as honorable women. So, why would God refer to multiple wives as honorable women if He did not approve of them?
Isn't being married to an honorable woman a blessing? Wouldn't two honorable women be even more of a blessing?
I would like to see responses backed up by scripture that is in context and no eisogesis please.
truthnluv
seebs said:That's arguing from silence right there! You're drawing a conclusion from silence!
But, in fact, as pointed out elsewhere, the discussion with David makes it clear that God blesses polygamy in some cases; similarly, we see that God encourages it in some cases; for instance, when an older brother's wife dies, the younger brother is encouraged, and quite strongly so, to become polygamous.
But not all desire is lust!
Not so! That would be true if all desire were lust, but if that were the case, even desiring your own wife would be adultery. Indeed, lust is always wrong; there is no acceptable context for lust, any more than there can be an acceptable context for hatred. Lust is not mere desire.
seebs said:I don't think it matters whether he was tricked or not; it was never condemned!
seebs said:Well, let's see. When I was last in a polygamous relationship, it was because a very good friend of mine had married another very good friend of mine, and the three of us were happier as a unit than as a couple and a friend outside the family. It didn't work out, but then, none of us really knew much about being married. I think if we'd been a couple of years more mature, with a better handle on marriage, we'd still be together.
There is some chance that I may be polygamous again in the future. I have no interest in seeking out another partner, and I don't think my wife does either... But that doesn't mean that we might not find outselves close enough to a friend to consider the possibility.
In short, I think of this much like any other possible relationship; if you find yourself closely tied to someone, it may be that the best possible expression of your feelings, and the most satisfying relationship for all involved, would be polygamy. I think that's pretty rare. For instance, if I really liked another woman, but my wife didn't like her as much, that wouldn't be a good basis for a relationship.
You can, of course, dismiss this as "personal satisfaction". But then, what reason do people ever get married for other than personal satisfaction? The thing you need to do to make it be bad is make that personal satisfaction be primarily sexual. If there are other aspects to marriage, that's different.
So, say, if my wife and I and one of our gaming buddies get to be really, really, close, there might come a time when we decided it would be easier on all of us to have shared finances, to live together, to commit to preserving this state as long as we live... In other words, to marry. And if that happens, we'll probably do it.
See? Sex is not the issue here.
Buzz Dixon said:mmomof7 --
I think Moses did have a second wife, or at the very least a cocubine from Ethiopia. Her presence caused quite a bit of dissension in Moses and Aaron's family groups during the exodus.
rnmomof7 said:Really? What he be desiring , a better cook? another baby sitter?
Lust within a marriage is acceptable.
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