I joined Christian Forums about five years ago when I was looking for a church and haven't been here in quite sometime.
I have a question about how this particular forum views non-Jews within the context of Messianic Judaism (and I've encountered many different opinions).
First though, a bit about me so you have some context. My wife is Jewish but not Messianic (we've been married for 33 years and back then, neither one of us was religious). She's not particularly observant except we keep "kosher-style" as the local Chabad Rabbi puts it and she occasionally attends shul.
I don't have any overt Jewish praxis (such as davening while wearing a tallit and donning tefillin) out of deference to her. She's a tad sensitive about non-Jews taking on Jewish religious practices.
She's not comfortable with me as a "Christian" attending synagogue with her, so I don't. I used to attend a church in the vein of Boaz Michael's book "Tent of David" but it didn't work out, so after two years and a rather pointed disagreement with the Head Pastor, I left. Since that time, I haven't attended any sort of congregation.
I do have one friend who I see every couple of weeks who has views similar to my own, but we don't often talk about religious topics.
My "community" is currently comprised of those people who respond to a small blog I maintain where I post of topics generally related to a Messianic Jewish/Gentile views on theology and doctrine.
My question is whether or not the people who maintain this particular discussion board believe in a single law for both Jews and Gentiles (that is, Gentiles being obligated to take on board an identical praxis as Jews who are Messianic) or if Gentile religious practice is made up of a sub-set of commandments as we might find in considering Acts 15?
I'm not trying to be a pest, but I find my personal circumstance unique among Messianics, so I thought I'd ask. Thanks.