pmh1nic said:
I'm having this discussion based on the hope that everyone involved is being honest and sincere.
But you aren't accepting that I am honest and sincere. There's the rub. When I say that I have heard Muslims and Mormons testify to dramatic changes of direction conversions, I am not accepted.
If you're ever in Brooklyn go visit the Brooklyn Tabernacle and you can meet hundreds of people that have had the dramatic life changing experiences I'm talking about.
And I told you to visit a Mormon Temple or an Islamic mosque.
The millions are the millions. No exaggeration. I'm one in that number (you can believe it or not).
How do you know it's not an exaggeration? Anyone done a count. I will accpet millions that have had experience of deity -- if you include the quiet not so dramatic experiences -- but there aren't millions of the wham-bang experiences, particularly when you get specific about drugs and crimes. If there were that many, our prisons would be empty.
The personal testaments alluded to in the links you provided are testamonies of people that as a result of an intellectual/spiritual pursuit over a period of time believe they have found the answer to the big questions of life.
Not
all of them. Again, you aren't looking closely.
"
Overtaken by a painful crisis of identity and faith, he gave up writing and sought refuge in a French monastery.....but something must have struck a chord, for a year on, we find him emerging from his retreat with his early interest in Islam confirmed."
Dramatic change from monastery to Islam.
"I knew now, beyond any doubt, that it was a God-inspired book I was holding in my hand: for although it had been placed before man over thirteen centuries ago, it clearly anticipated something that could have become true only in this complicated, mechanized, phantom-ridden age of ours"
Dramatic conversion while reading the Quran.
"I purchased a copy of Savary's French translation of the Qur'an .... It was as if a ray of eternal truth shone down with blessedness upon me."
Conversion while pursuing the truth in reading the Koran isn't the same.
If the wham-bang is with the Risen Christ or with what Muslims consider the direct, dictated words of God, that is pretty much the same thing. In each case the claim is that God is speaking directly. The Risen Christ didn't get a stenographer. Muslims say Allah did -- Mohammed.
The Apostle Paul wasn't a criminal or drug addict BUT he was going in one direction and was turn 180 degrees around in a moment in time which is the definition you had trouble understanding.
No, I don't have trouble with the definition. I just have trouble with your attempt to make it exclusive to Christianity. Again, I have heard stories of dramatic turnarounds -- Christian monastery to Islam above and even more dramatic stories -- from Muslims and Mormons. Look at Joseph Smith. Conservative Christian and then has a dramatic experience with the angel Morotai, then becomes a preacher and founds a new religion. How is that so different from Paul? Yes, you believe one and not the other, but that isn't the point. The point is, on an objective level, how are they significantly different?
You're going around in circles on the resurrection/fact issue. I'm not backing away from my statement, I'm backing away from you characterization of my statement.
You did back away from your statement as fact and stated it as a belief. That was my whole point.
And it doesn't matter if I'm dealing with an atheist or a believer of another religion, what ultimately sets Christianity apart from other religions are the claims of it's founder, that He is Savior, King of Kings, Lord of Lords, the Way, Truth and the Life. One of the evidences that His claim is true is the dramatic, life changing experiences of millions of believers, including the Apostle Paul.
The first part I mostly agree with. The claims
about Jesus are that he is Savior, King of Kings, Lord of Lords. He never said that. This is what his followers deduced about him. They may or may not have been correct. Jesus may have said "I am the way, the truth, and the life" or those words may also have been put in his mouth. So yes, those claims about Jesus distinguish Christianity from any contemporary major montheistic religion. Mormonism, Moonies, and JW's, of course, claim the same thing. However, Jesus is not the first person claimed to have been resurrected or be the resurrected son of God. Mithraism before Christianity had that figure.
Now, the second claim -- "one of the evidences that His claim is true" -- I also partially agree with. But here it does matter who you are dealing with and how you make your claim. Yes, you can point to these wham-bang experiences and say they are evidence of a
deity. However, since Christianity has slower conversions where people are searching and then find Jesus and other religions have wham-bang experiences, you can't use them as evidence for Christianity as opposed to Islam or Buddhism or Hinduism.
Let me try to explain why once more:
1. You are denying the validity of all those millions of Christians who have had the slow experience. By saying those experiences aren't valid for Islam, you say the
experiences aren't valid. Not valid for Islam, not valid for Christianity. Just not valid, period.
2. Because the wham-bang are such a minority of experiences, you open up the can of worms that the experiences aren't due to God or Jesus but to some minor physiological glitch that has nothing to do with God: epilepsy, incipient brain tumor, idiosyncratic reaction to certain foods, etc.
3. And, or course, your claim that other religions don't have them without having done the research to see if they do. If you dogmatically stick to this claim and arbitrarily dismiss the dramatic experiences of any other religion, all you show is Christianity being arbitrary and arrogant, not right.
If Jesus is who He claimed to be then His quoting of Genesis validates it as what the Jews beleived it was, the Word of Almighty God.
But Mark 10 and Matthew 19 don't show Jesus validating Genesis. Rather, they show Jesus using the authority of the Pentateuch to validate his words. You are still using circular reasoning.
The Jews of His day recognized His special authority not just because of the miracles He did but they recognized a special authority in His proclaiming the Word of God and expounding on the OT scriptures.
I'm afraid that they didn't. Remember, in John you have two instances where Jesus is proclaiming his authority as God and the Jews nearly stoned him on the spot. The Midrash -- rabbinical writings -- state that Jesus was
not crucified by the Romans but rather was stoned by the Jews for apostasy -- claiming to be God when he wasn't.
The Scribes and Pharisees proclaimed the Word of God but lacked the authority ascribed to Jesus.
In
your view and mine. But not in theirs. In theirs Jesus did not have the authority because he had never gone thru the training necessary to become a Scribe or Pharisee.
But we are straying from the main issue: does Jesus validate a literal reading of Genesis 1-11. The answer is, no, he did not. Jesus did use Genesis at least twice in his preaching -- once about divorce and once about making a point that the Kingdom of God would take people unaware, as the Flood took people unaware -- but in neither case is Jesus backing that creationism is correct. Jesus is borrowing the
theological messages from Genesis 1-11. That's OK. No one is saying the theological messages are wrong. But we are saying that Biblical literalists go too far in the claim that this confirms a literal Genesis 1-11.
I didn't use italics and underlines to give the words more authority but to help you separate my quotes of your statements from my responses. Just trying to help you keep things straight .
Thank you, but I haven't had such problems before, have I?
The words speak for themself. Jesus wasn't claiming that Moses was wrong but that divorce isn't what God originally intended when He created man and women.
So Moses wrote down an erroneous law. No way around it, Jesus is saying that Moses didn't write down God's intention correctly.
Jesus quotes the reference regarding man and woman in Genesis two referring to God's intention BEFORE the fall and that the accomdation for divorce was giving afterwards because of the hardness of their hearts (a result of the fall).
And just how did you read this into the passages? That's amazing. Jesus isn't talking about before and after the Fall. Jesus goes on to say in Matthew 19:9 "I tell you, then, that any man who divorces his wife for any cause other than her unfaithfulness, commits adultery if he marries some other woman." We are still after the Fall, the hardness of hearts still applies, and Jesus is now telling them that Moses was wrong. Or, if you prefer that this is God's doing, you are saying that God was wrong. There never should have been the accomodation and Jesus is now saying it doesn't exist.
You have now hoist yourself on your own petard. By saying what you did, without looking at the whole chapter, you have made a position where God is wrong. What is more, you may have completely separated Jesus from God. This is what comes of using ad hoc hypotheses. Yes, you address the immediate criticism and perhaps duck it, but since the ad hoc hypothesis was made in such a narrow context, it conflicts with other areas and causes great harm to areas that are of far greater importance.