Why we cannot lose our salvation

savedfromdistruction

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First the law has no hold over a Christian as we are not under the law (Gal 5:18), but there are two parts to the law. The ceremonial and the moral and the ceremonial has passed except for baptism and the table which was added. However that does not mean we can disobey the moral part. The true believer will seek to obey the moral because of his new nature.

The big problem with understanding eternal security is that most people have a miss-understanding about the fall, the law, and salvation. I am not suggesting they are not saved because they miss-understand, but they are confused causing many to think that they can lose their salvation when it is not possible.

First so many want to confuse the law as having some form or ability to damn people. It does not and never has. The law not only could not save anyone, it could not damn anyone either. We are damned already because of the sin of Adam. Romans 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned.
Notice all is past tense. All men have sinned in Adam because of Adam even before we actually have sinned in life ourselves. We are born separated (lost) from God. We don't become lost at some point after birth because we sin. We are already lost.
The proof is that before the law of Moses men died. They were lost needing salvation before the law was given or before it could impute sin to them and the proof was that they died.
13-14 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

So we are lost not because we violate the commandments (the law) we are lost because we are associated with Adam. It has always been that way. There has only been one law that has been given that can condemn man and that was in the garden, the tree of the knowledge good and evil. There has only been one law given by which men can be saved from that curse. That law is connected to another tree, the cross. The garden is gone and the tree of knowledge of good and evil is gone and no other law has been given or will ever be given to overcome the cross and make men lost again. That is why we cannot lose our salvation. The Christian is no longer under any law except the law of grace, while the unsaved, (the lost those who have never been saved) are still under the law that Adam fell to in the garden.

So we are not saved by keeping the law of Moses (the Commandments) because the law had no provision to save. No place does scripture say if you keep the law you will be saved (go to heaven). The law had no power to save. Salvation has always been by grace through faith from Adam and until the end of time.
The law did come with promises but those promises were for this life. If you obeyed the law you would be blessed on the earth. If you did not obey you would be cursed on the earth.
The giving of the law did not make man any more lost. Lost is lost and the law did not make him any more unworthy. The law had another provision. It was to give man a better understanding that he IS lost. Every time he broke a command he should have seen just how wicked he is. It was to be his teacher to point him to something else for salvation. That something was a sacrifice and it was the Son of God.

For those who are saved the law has no authority over us, but the law Giver does and His standards have not change. So we are subject not to the law, but to the One who gave the law and by watching how someone lives (the practice of their life) we can know if we or they are saved or not if we or they claim to be a Christian. True believers keep His commandments.
john 14:15 If ye love me, keep my commandments.
The word keep was used as a nautical word back when this was written. The sailors of ships were called star keepers. They kept the stars. In other words they steered the ships they sailed by the stars to guide them to where they were going because they did not have GPS systems like today. They did not one day keep the stars and another day not keep them. They kept the stars as a practice of steering the ship. It is the same with a true Christian. He keeps the commands as the practice of his life. Like the sailors who may get a little off course during the day because of wind and current but would quickly correct their path again at night, the Christian may sin during any given day, but he corrects his course once he sees his sin because of the One that leads him and points it out. So our practice is to keep the commands and if we do sin we are swift to return to the right path through confession and repentance. It is not the daily practice of a true believer to be off course (practice sin) as a way of daily life. Those who practice sin willfully seek a path contrary to the path of God. No star keeper ever did that and neither does any Christian. We cannot practice sin.
1 John 3:9-10 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit (practice) sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot (practice) sin, because he is born of God.
In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not (practice) righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.
Keeping the commandments does not save us. It only proves that we have the faith that does because we are steering our ship by the One True Light who guides His children. We who are saved are commandment keepers.
 
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savedfromdistruction

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saved,

Matthew 24:13 is the true description of perseverance of the saints (better terminology than "eternal security"). It states:

Oz

Not in this reagrds. The passage is not about soul salvation but about the saving of the body from death. The passage is speaking about end time distruction.
 
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OzSpen

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saved,
Not in this reagrds. The passage is not about soul salvation but about the saving of the body from death. The passage is speaking about end time distruction.
I cannot agree that Matt. 24:13 is referring to the destruction at the end of the world. I base this on my understanding of the NT Greek language.

Matt. 24:13 is one of the bright spots in this prophecy that in spite of terrible opposition, those who are true believers will endure.

In this verse, Jesus chooses to use the singular, "the one who endures", because he is calling on each individual disciple to think on his/her responsibility in relation to endurance that leads to salvation. The verb is intransitive, so it means "to endure under". Or, in common language, it means to stand one's ground. The substantive participle is an aorist, thus indicating that the endurance has been completed.

The phrase, eis telos (to end) has the simple view of enduring to life's end here on earth. Telos has no definite article, as it has in vv 6, 14 in this chapter, so the Greek demonstrates that this is not THE end, THE end of the world. However for flow in English translation, the translators have used "the end" but the definite article "the" is not in the Greek text.

So, to endure means that the true Christian bears up under whatever pressure, persecution that confession of Christ brings upon believers.

The glorious expectation is that for all who endure as believers to the end of human life, no matter what the difficulties, will experience that awesome promise of salvation.

In Christ, Oz
 
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RobertZ

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saved,

I cannot agree that Matt. 24:13 is referring to the destruction at the end of the world. I base this on my understanding of the NT Greek language.

Matt. 24:13 is one of the bright spots in this prophecy that in spite of terrible opposition, those who are true believers will endure.

In this verse, Jesus chooses to use the singular, "the one who endures", because he is calling on each individual disciple to think on his/her responsibility in relation to endurance that leads to salvation. The verb is intransitive, so it means "to endure under". Or, in common language, it means to stand one's ground. The substantive participle is an aorist, thus indicating that the endurance has been completed.

The phrase, eis telos (to end) has the simple view of enduring to life's end here on earth. Telos has no definite article, as it has in vv 6, 14 in this chapter, so the Greek demonstrates that this is not THE end, THE end of the world. However for flow in English translation, the translators have used "the end" but the definite article "the" is not in the Greek text.

So, to endure means that the true Christian bears up under whatever pressure, persecution that confession of Christ brings upon believers.

The glorious expectation is that for all who endure as believers to the end of human life, no matter what the difficulties, will experience that awesome promise of salvation.

In Christ, Oz

Every true Christian is indwelt by the Holy Spirit and everyone indwelt by the Holy Spirit will endure to the end. No if's or but's about it.
 
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Hammster

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saved,

I cannot agree that Matt. 24:13 is referring to the destruction at the end of the world. I base this on my understanding of the NT Greek language.

Matt. 24:13 is one of the bright spots in this prophecy that in spite of terrible opposition, those who are true believers will endure.

In this verse, Jesus chooses to use the singular, "the one who endures", because he is calling on each individual disciple to think on his/her responsibility in relation to endurance that leads to salvation. The verb is intransitive, so it means "to endure under". Or, in common language, it means to stand one's ground. The substantive participle is an aorist, thus indicating that the endurance has been completed.

The phrase, eis telos (to end) has the simple view of enduring to life's end here on earth. Telos has no definite article, as it has in vv 6, 14 in this chapter, so the Greek demonstrates that this is not THE end, THE end of the world. However for flow in English translation, the translators have used "the end" but the definite article "the" is not in the Greek text.

So, to endure means that the true Christian bears up under whatever pressure, persecution that confession of Christ brings upon believers.

The glorious expectation is that for all who endure as believers to the end of human life, no matter what the difficulties, will experience that awesome promise of salvation.

In Christ, Oz
Doesn't happen often, but I agree with you on this.
 
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OzSpen

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Robert,
Every true Christian is indwelt by the Holy Spirit and everyone indwelt by the Holy Spirit will endure to the end. No if's or but's about it.
I note that you give no biblical support. However, this does not mean that a person once indwelt by the Holy Spirit cannot lose that indwelling.

I have written my exegetical understanding in, "Once saved always saved OR once saved lost again". There are biblical examples of salvation being lost.

Oz
 
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RobertZ

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Robert,

I note that you give no biblical support.

Sorry, didnt realize I needed too but since you brought it up........

Ephesians 1:13-14

"And you also were included in Christ when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God's possession--to the praise of his glory."

If I can lose the indwelling Holy Spirit then this passage lies for their would be no guarantee of my inheritance which this passage clearly promises to all those who are indwelt by the Holy Spirit.

Philippians 1:6

"being confident of this, that he who began a good work in you will carry it on to completion until the day of Christ Jesus."


Matthew 7:23

"Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'"

This is probably my favorite passage because it most clearly settles the debate. Notice Jesus says "I NEVER KNEW YOU" if you were once saved and then lost your salvation because of some sin or disobedience in your life then Jesus would have to say something else other than the words "I NEVER KNEW YOU". ;)
 
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Hammster

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Sorry, didnt realize I needed too but since you brought it up........

Ephesians 1:13-14

"And you also were included in Christ when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God's possession--to the praise of his glory."

If I can lose the indwelling Holy Spirit then this passage lies for their would be no guarantee of my inheritance which this passage clearly promises to all those who are indwelt by the Holy Spirit.

Philippians 1:6

"being confident of this, that he who began a good work in you will carry it on to completion until the day of Christ Jesus."


Matthew 7:23

"Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'"

This is probably my favorite passage because it most clearly settles the debate. Notice Jesus says "I NEVER KNEW YOU" if you were once saved and then lost your salvation because of some sin or disobedience in your life then Jesus would have to say something else other than the words "I NEVER KNEW YOU". ;)
You mean it doesn't say "Depart from Me, I used to know you"?
 
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Hupomone10

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I cannot agree that Matt. 24:13 is referring to the destruction at the end of the world. I base this on my understanding of the NT Greek language.

The glorious expectation is that for all who endure as believers to the end of human life, no matter what the difficulties, will experience that awesome promise of salvation.

In Christ, Oz
There is no reason to believe we should assume "to the end" means "to the end of human life". That, too, is an assumption and an attempt to read between the lines to support a doctrinal stance.

I think you will admit, Oz, as do I, that this is often done in the scriptures by us - reading between the lines and adding-to in order to be in harmony with our position at the time.

As an example of how "end of a person's life" is reading into the context, consider verse 13

"But the one who endures to the end, he shall be saved." (Matt 24:13 NASB)

and the verse immediately following it where Jesus defines what He's referring to by "the end."

14 "And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world for a witness to all the nations, and then the end shall come."

If you are preterist, then this only applies to those living at the time of the AD 70 destruction. If you are other, it cannot apply to any who have already fallen asleep in Christ, for they have not made it to the point where the gospel was spread to every nation, or to the end of this tribulation period.

Good try, but it doesn't pass muster, with me anyway. All of us try to present it as though we alone are objectively interpreting the Word, when in fact when the light of God shines on us, we are usually all biased to some degree, and believe what we do at least in part out of need, or from pride, or from plain ignorance and immaturity in listening to the Spirit.

Blessings,
H.

 
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OzSpen

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Robert,
Sorry, didnt realize I needed too but since you brought it up........

Ephesians 1:13-14

"And you also were included in Christ when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God's possession--to the praise of his glory."

If I can lose the indwelling Holy Spirit then this passage lies for their would be no guarantee of my inheritance which this passage clearly promises to all those who are indwelt by the Holy Spirit.

Philippians 1:6

"being confident of this, that he who began a good work in you will carry it on to completion until the day of Christ Jesus."


Matthew 7:23

"Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'"

This is probably my favorite passage because it most clearly settles the debate. Notice Jesus says "I NEVER KNEW YOU" if you were once saved and then lost your salvation because of some sin or disobedience in your life then Jesus would have to say something else other than the words "I NEVER KNEW YOU". ;)
These verses harmonise with Matt. 24:13,
The one who endures to the end will be saved.
Oz
 
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OzSpen

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Hupomone,
There is no reason to believe we should assume "to the end" means "to the end of human life". That, too, is an assumption and an attempt to read between the lines to support a doctrinal stance.

I think you will admit, Oz, as do I, that this is often done in the scriptures by us - reading between the lines and adding-to in order to be in harmony with our position at the time.

As an example of how "end of a person's life" is reading into the context, consider verse 13

"But the one who endures to the end, he shall be saved." (Matt 24:13 NASB)

and the verse immediately following it where Jesus defines what He's referring to by "the end."

14 "And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world for a witness to all the nations, and then the end shall come."

If you are preterist, then this only applies to those living at the time of the AD 70 destruction. If you are other, it cannot apply to any who have already fallen asleep in Christ, for they have not made it to the point where the gospel was spread to every nation, or to the end of this tribulation period.

Good try, but it doesn't pass muster, with me anyway. All of us try to present it as though we alone are objectively interpreting the Word, when in fact when the light of God shines on us, we are usually all biased to some degree, and believe what we do at least in part out of need, or from pride, or from plain ignorance and immaturity in listening to the Spirit.

Blessings,
H.

I provided Greek exegesis and did not read between the lines. Good try, but it doesn't work with me either.

Oz
 
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Hupomone10

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Hupomone,

I provided Greek exegesis and did not read between the lines. Good try, but it doesn't work with me either.

Oz
I think you meant to say "Greek eisegesis", without the word "Greek".

Eisegesis (from the Greek εἰσηγεῖσθαι; 'to lead in') is the process of interpretation of an existing text in such a way as to introduce one's own ideas. This is best understood when contrasted with exegesis. While exegesis draws out the meaning from the text, eisegesis occurs when a reader reads his/her interpretation into the text." (- websters online dictionary, bolding mine.)


You would do better to admit the obvious: to admit when you're applying Greek language analysis, and when you're applying what you think it means.

Blessings,
H.
 
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PrincetonGuy

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I cannot agree that Matt. 24:13 is referring to the destruction at the end of the world. I base this on my understanding of the NT Greek language.

Matt. 24:13 is one of the bright spots in this prophecy that in spite of terrible opposition, those who are true believers will endure.

In this verse, Jesus chooses to use the singular, "the one who endures", because he is calling on each individual disciple to think on his/her responsibility in relation to endurance that leads to salvation. The verb is intransitive, so it means "to endure under". Or, in common language, it means to stand one's ground. The substantive participle is an aorist, thus indicating that the endurance has been completed.

The phrase, eis telos (to end) has the simple view of enduring to life's end here on earth. Telos has no definite article, as it has in vv 6, 14 in this chapter, so the Greek demonstrates that this is not THE end, THE end of the world. However for flow in English translation, the translators have used "the end" but the definite article "the" is not in the Greek text.

So, to endure means that the true Christian bears up under whatever pressure, persecution that confession of Christ brings upon believers.

The glorious expectation is that for all who endure as believers to the end of human life, no matter what the difficulties, will experience that awesome promise of salvation.

In Christ, Oz

Thank you, brother, for sharing with us!

The substantive aorist participle in Matt. 24:13 is not speaking of endurance that “has been completed.” We know this because the main verb is in the future tense, and, therefore, the action of the substantive aorist participle expresses subsequent rather than antecedent action that has already been completed. Those believers who endure to the end will be saved.

The context is the end of the age (v. 3)—not the end of one’s life. Therefore, we know that that Jesus is, in this particular passage, speaking primarily of endurance to the end of the age, despite the absence of the article, rather than endurance to the end of one’s life.

It is possible, however, that the absence of the article is due to Jesus using a play on words—that is, that He is using the word “end” in verse 13 in a qualitative rather than the specific manner that He uses it in the rest of the passage.

Nothing is expressly said in this verse of those believers who do not endure to the end, but the implication is that they will not be saved. Moreover, we know from many other passages in the New Testament that endurance to the end of one’s life is necessary for one’s ultimate salvation.

Because He lives,

PrincetonGuy
 
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OzSpen

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Thank you, brother, for sharing with us!

The substantive aorist participle in Matt. 24:13 is not speaking of endurance that “has been completed.” We know this because the main verb is in the future tense, and, therefore, the action of the substantive aorist participle expresses subsequent rather than antecedent action that has already been completed. Those believers who endure to the end will be saved.

The context is the end of the age (v. 3)—not the end of one’s life. Therefore, we know that that Jesus is, in this particular passage, speaking primarily of endurance to the end of the age, despite the absence of the article, rather than endurance to the end of one’s life.

It is possible, however, that the absence of the article is due to Jesus using a play on words—that is, that He is using the word “end” in verse 13 in a qualitative rather than the specific manner that He uses it in the rest of the passage.

Nothing is expressly said in this verse of those believers who do not endure to the end, but the implication is that they will not be saved. Moreover, we know from many other passages in the New Testament that endurance to the end of one’s life is necessary for one’s ultimate salvation.

Because He lives,

PrincetonGuy
With respect, the aorist indicates completed action and eis telios, without the article, does not refer to THE end of time.

Oz
 
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PrincetonGuy

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Sorry, didnt realize I needed too but since you brought it up........

Ephesians 1:13-14

"And you also were included in Christ when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation. Having believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God's possession--to the praise of his glory."

If I can lose the indwelling Holy Spirit then this passage lies for their would be no guarantee of my inheritance which this passage clearly promises to all those who are indwelt by the Holy Spirit.

Philippians 1:6

"being confident of this, that he who began a good work in you will carry it on to completion until the day of Christ Jesus."


Matthew 7:23

"Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'"

This is probably my favorite passage because it most clearly settles the debate. Notice Jesus says "I NEVER KNEW YOU" if you were once saved and then lost your salvation because of some sin or disobedience in your life then Jesus would have to say something else other than the words "I NEVER KNEW YOU". ;)

Let us take these three passages one at a time.

Eph. 1:13. in whom ye also, having heard the word of the truth, the gospel of your salvation,—in whom, having also believed, ye were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise,
14. which is an earnest of our inheritance, unto the redemption of God's own possession, unto the praise of his glory. (ASV)

In the Greek text, Ephesians 1:13-14 is a small fraction of a very long sentence that comprises vv. Eph. 1:3-14, the entire sentence being a doxology in which the main clause (an independent and autonomous unit of expression that can be correctly punctuated as a sentence) is “Blessed be the God and Father” found in v. 3. Everything else in this very long sentence is a lengthy series of subordinate phrases and clauses supporting the statement in the main clause. Therefore, Eph. 1:3-14 is not a series of objective theological statements that tell us the whole story, but only a small part of the story—a story that tells us what God has done for us, but does not tell us what we must do—that is, continue in our faith, or as Jesus put it, “abide” in Him.

In v. 13, we read that in Christ we are sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise. The seal spoken of in this context is the seal of ownership, guaranteeing the owner of the seal the right to keep, sell, exchange, or give away the property or goods bearing his seal. Therefore, to suggest that being sealed with the Holy Spirit is like being sealed in a Mason jar is biblically incorrect. The only thing that the seal does is guarantee that we who are in the process of believing in Christ as our Lord and our Savior belong to the King. We do NOT own the King; the King owns us—and as our owner, He is free to do with us as He pleases. Therefore, for any Christian to claim that the King is obligated to keep us if we fall into disbelief and willful disobedience is not only to make an audaciously insubordinate claim, it is to outright deny of the holiness and majesty of God.

In v. 14, we read that the Holy Spirit is an earnest of our inheritance, unto the redemption of God's own possession. The Greek preposition translated here as “unto” is translated as “until” in the KJV even though this Greek preposition seldom if ever means “until.” The root meaning of this Greek preposition is “in,” but the contexts in which it is found in ancient Greek literature show us that this preposition is also used with other meanings such as “with respect to,” “against,” “upon,” “among,” “for the purpose of,” “because of,” etc.

Therefore, to claim that Ephesians 1:13-14 teaches that a Christian cannot lose his salvation is not justified.

Phil. 1:6. For I am confident of this very thing, that He who began a good work in you will perfect it until the day of Christ Jesus.
7. For it is only right for me to feel this way about you all, because I have you in my heart, since both in my imprisonment and in the defense and confirmation of the gospel, you all are partakers of grace with me. (NASB, 1995)

In this passage, Paul is expressing how he personally feels about the Christians at Philippi, a body of believers to which he also wrote,

Phil. 2:12. So then, my beloved, just as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your salvation with fear and trembling;
13. for it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for His good pleasure. (NASB, 1995)

The Christians at Philippi were obedient Christians, and Paul had confidence in them remaining so. Note also in these two verses that Paul is instructing these Christians to “workout” their salvation with fear and trembling, and then tells them “it is God who is at work” in them. God works in the lives of all Christians, but some Christians do their own thing at times rather than God’s thing and they are chastened for it. Some other Christians cease doing God’s thing and do their own thing, not allowing God to be at work any longer in their lives.

Matt. 7:21. “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter.
22. “Many will say to Me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?’
23. “And then I will declare to them, ‘I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.’”

In this passage, Jesus is not speaking of Christians who have forsaken Him; He is speaking of false believers who were never saved. In John 15:1-6, however, Jesus is speaking of Christians who cease to remain in Him, and He says of those Christians, “

6. “If anyone does not abide in Me, he is thrown away as a branch and dries up; and they gather them, and cast them into the fire and they are burned.”

Unfortunately, this passage is often misunderstood because many readers do not understand the meaning of the word “abide” when used intransitively as it is here in both the Greek and our English translations. Merriam-Webster’s Collegiate Dictionary, Eleventh Edition, 2003, gives us the following meanings of the word “abide” when used intransitively:

1: to remain stable or fixed in a state
2: to continue in a place : sojurn

No one can possibly remain in Christ unless he has been in Christ. Moreover, the Greek word translated as “abide” in this passage is translated in many places in the KJV as “remain.”

Therefore, none of these three passages teach that a Christian cannot lose his salvation.
 
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PrincetonGuy

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With respect, the aorist indicates completed action…
The aorist tense of a verb in the indicative mood indicates completed action; the aorist tense of a participle (a verbal adjective) may indicate antecedent action, simultaneous action, or subsequent action.

H. E. Dana, Th.D., and Julius R. Mantey, Th.D., D.D. (both Baptists), in their A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament write of participles on page 230,

(1) Antecedent action relative to the main verb is ordinarily expressed by the aorist or perfect. Nevertheless, the aorist frequently expresses contemporaneous (Mt. 22:1) or subsequent action (Heb. 9:12).

A. T. Robertson writes in his A Short Grammar of the Greek New Testament, “Time with the participle is purely relative.” In his A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research, A. T. Robertson writes, “Blass thinks that the aorist participle contains the idea of completion, but even so that notion may be merely constative or ingressive. Goodwin holds that the aorist participle generally represents the action as antecedent to the principle verb. Burton has it more nearly correct when he insists that the aorist participle conceives of the event indefinitely or simply….” Robertson then quotes from Burton, “The Aorist participle of antecedent action does not denote antecedence; it is used of antecedent action, where antecedence is implied, not by the aorist tense as a tense, but in some other way.” Robertson devotes three full pages to an analysis of the aorist participle. (pages 1112-1114).

and eis telios, without the article, does not refer to THE end of time.
That is your personal opinion. Regardless of that, however, the context speaks not of the end of “time,” but the end of the “age.”
 
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OzSpen

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PrincetonGuy,
The aorist tense of a verb in the indicative mood indicates completed action; the aorist tense of a participle (a verbal adjective) may indicate antecedent action, simultaneous action, or subsequent action.

H. E. Dana, Th.D., and Julius R. Mantey, Th.D., D.D. (both Baptists), in their A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament write of participles on page 230,

(1) Antecedent action relative to the main verb is ordinarily expressed by the aorist or perfect. Nevertheless, the aorist frequently expresses contemporaneous (Mt. 22:1) or subsequent action (Heb. 9:12).

A. T. Robertson writes in his A Short Grammar of the Greek New Testament, “Time with the participle is purely relative.” In his A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research, A. T. Robertson writes, “Blass thinks that the aorist participle contains the idea of completion, but even so that notion may be merely constative or ingressive. Goodwin holds that the aorist participle generally represents the action as antecedent to the principle verb. Burton has it more nearly correct when he insists that the aorist participle conceives of the event indefinitely or simply….” Robertson then quotes from Burton, “The Aorist participle of antecedent action does not denote antecedence; it is used of antecedent action, where antecedence is implied, not by the aorist tense as a tense, but in some other way.” Robertson devotes three full pages to an analysis of the aorist participle. (pages 1112-1114).


That is your personal opinion. Regardless of that, however, the context speaks not of the end of “time,” but the end of the “age.”
Thanks so much for bringing this correction to me from Dana & Mantey and A. T. Robertson. I appreciate your drawing these Greek nuances to my attention. I have both of these Greek grammars in my library but failed to consult them. However, even these outstanding Greek grammarians are not definitive in their views of the aorist participle.

However, in regard to eis telos (lit. to end), it is not my personal opinion. I consulted a number of commentators on Matt. 24:13 before I posted. These are but two examples:

Lutheran commentator, R. C. H. Lenski, stated:
In the phrase eis telos we have but the simple idea of endurance to life's end here on earth, Rev. 2:7. Telos has no article as it has in v. 6 and in v. 14, which means that this is not "the end," namely of the world, although, unfortunately, we must use an article when we translate eis telos into English. The three telos used in this chapter cannot refer to the ed of the world and imply that this end is to come when Jerusalem is destroyed, and that he who hold out so long shall be saved (1943. Commentary on the New Testament: The Interpretation of St. Matthew's Gospel. Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers/Augsburg Publishing House pp. 934-935).
Reformed commentator, William Hendriksen, made these comments about Matt. 24:13:
But he that endures to the end, he shall be saved. As in 10:22 so also here the meaning is: he who, in spite of all these disturbances and persecutions, remains loyal to Christ shall enter into glory. For himself the period of persecution and trial will last until death delivers him from this earthly scene (John 16:33; II Tim. 3:12). For the church in general it will last until Christ's return in glory (II Thess. 1:7; Rev. 11:10-12) [1973. New Testament Commentary: Exposition of the Gospel According to Matthew. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Academic, p. 854].
In Christ, Oz
 
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PrincetonGuy

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PrincetonGuy,

Thanks so much for bringing this correction to me from Dana & Mantey and A. T. Robertson. I appreciate your drawing these Greek nuances to my attention. I have both of these Greek grammars in my library but failed to consult them. However, even these outstanding Greek grammarians are not definitive in their views of the aorist participle.

However, in regard to eis telos (lit. to end), it is not my personal opinion. I consulted a number of commentators on Matt. 24:13 before I posted. These are but two examples:

Lutheran commentator, R. C. H. Lenski, stated:
Reformed commentator, William Hendriksen, made these comments about Matt. 24:13:
In Christ, Oz

I purchased all twelve volumes of Lenski’s commentary on the New Testament very early in my Christian life and very frequently consulted them. Since then I have purchased hundreds of commentaries on the individual books of the New Testament written by scholars specializing on the individual books, and I now consult them much more frequently than I do the volumes by Lenski. I purchased four of the volumes by Hendriksen but did not purchase any more of them because I began limiting my purchasing of commentaries to those by specialists. I do not own Hendriksen’s volume on Matthew.

Let us take a look at the basis of Lenski’s interpretation of the Greek construction εις τελος. The first occurrence of this construction in the New Testament is found in Matt. 10:22 and upon this verse Lenski comments, in part, “To the end” must refer to death; for “bring to death” immediately precedes. The phrase cannot refer to the Parousia and the Judgment Day.” In other words, Lenski is basing his interpretation of the words upon the context in which they are found, rather than upon the absence of the article. However, you wrote,

“The phrase, eis telos (to end) has the simple view of enduring to life's end here on earth. Telos has no definite article, as it has in vv 6, 14 in this chapter, so the Greek demonstrates that this is not THE end, THE end of the world. However for flow in English translation, the translators have used "the end" but the definite article "the" is not in the Greek text.”

Moreover, Lenski ignores the fact that the entire passage is about a future time of persecution and “the end” is much more reasonably to be understood as “the end of the persecution.” Lenski was a very conservative amillennial Lutheran scholar and his eschatology probably influenced his interpretation.

In your quote from Hendriksen’s commentary (as I understand it without the benefit of the full context before me), the death that he writes of is not the death of the persecuted believer, it is the death of Christ, as is shown by his reference to John 6:33,

33. “These things I have spoken to you, so that in Me you may have peace. In the world you have tribulation, but take courage; I have overcome the world.” (NASB, 1995)

Hendriksen is drawing an analogy between the “the period of persecution and trial” of Jesus and the period of persecution and trial of the followers of Jesus. Jesus endured to the end, and so must his followers overcome if they are to be saved. The important fact here, however, is that Hendriksen is not basing his interpretation upon the absence of the article. I have attempted to find someone with an extensive knowledge of the Greek New Testament who believes that the absence of the article “demonstrates that this is not THE end, THE end of the world,” but I have not found such person.


I have found, however, several scholars of the Greek text of Matthew’s gospel that believes contrary to your statement. For example, Willoughby C. Allen, in his commentary of Matthew in the early I.C.C. series writes on Matt. 10:22, where the construction is the same,

“In Mk. [where the construction is the same] the τελος is the coming of the Son of Man in the period after the great tribulation.”

Alan Hugh M’Neile, in his The Gospel According to St. Matthew, The Greek Text with Introduction, Notes, and Indices writes,

“The meanings of εις τελος vary in the LXX, and N. T., as in class. Gr.”

He then gives examples from this literature. Having given the examples, he concludes,

“εις τελος is therefore ‘continually,’ i.e. to the utmost extent or intensity of persecution.”

May God bless you, brother. Thank you for sharing with us.
 
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