Why does Jesus pray to himself, praise himself, plead with himself?

[Masihi]

I guess we don't. I see an eternal being (who is fully aware that death can't hurt him) sweating blood and pleading not to be killed. Something seems awfully suspicious here.

Thanks. I am most sensitive right now to the ideas of Substitutionary Atonement being conveyed as truth, and this was meant to help you clarify that you are giving reliable advice. It also did not seem right to tell someone they should learn something but not give them any help with that. You spoke as though OP had been taught what you are describing, but that isn't fair. Alex is not well educated in Christianity and is trying to figure it out because he can see that some people have managed to figure it out, but those ones who haven't and just believe what they be;ieve are confusing him. I know you can help.

I didnt see it from that angle. Im pretty sure Alex would benefit by taking part in a weekly Bible study. This short discussion will not really help someone confused on the Bible. A logical step by step approach to the Bible is key to understanding its pages. That and meditation on what is read.

As for the Lord and the cup:
There are too many events that lead me to believe that the Lord eagerly desired to fulfill his purpose of going to the cross. These events negate the possibility that He "pleaded" for that to change. They negate the possibility that he "feared". 1) He enterred Jerusalem knowing the priests had the desire to arrest him. They had tried before. 2) Jesus knows Judas is going to get the guards that later arrest him. 3) Jesus knows that the Judas would lead the guards to the Mt of Olives. 4) After praying, he walked towards the guards rather than away from them. 5) Jesus asked the guards who they were looking for and he answered in the affirmative. 6) He healed the soldier's ear but did not free himself from the guards. 7) etc, etc. Anyone looking to avoid the crucifixion would have 1) not enterred the city of tension 2) mislead Judas to think he was going somewhere else that night 3) walked away from the guards 4) perhaps denied his identity to the guards 5) used his power to free himself.

Jesus specifically asked that the cup be taken away. To be clear, the following interpretation is my own personal revelation and may or may not be the case.
1) I suggest that the cup he had to drink contained all the sins that he would later crucify. Similar to the cup of wrath which symbolized Gds judgement on Jerusalem in the days of Isaiah and Jeremiah. Isaiah 51.17 "Rise up, O Jerusalem, you who have drunk from the hand of the LORD the cup of his wrath, you who have drained to its dregs the goblet that makes men stagger."
2) I also suggest that taking the cup would force Jesus to be abandoned by the Father because the incarnate side of Jesus took on all the sins of mankind.
3) I further suggest that the thought of separation from the Father is the reason "my soul is overwhelmed with sorrow to the point of death"- Mathew 26.38.
To conclude, Jesus said he felt sorrow, (not fear). He later quotes Psa 22, "My Gd, why have you forsaken me".
He did not fear death, because he conquered death. Rather, He felt sorrow over having to be separated from the Father for that short span of time during which he took on the world's sins upon his flesh, only to crucify those sins.

 

[oi_antz]

having to be separated from the Father for that short span of time during which he took on the world's sins upon his flesh, only to crucify those sins.

Thanks, that is a great explanation. Can you also please show us the scriptural basis for this belief?

 

[James Is Back]

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