I couldn't care less what some conservative blogger writing for Conservapedia thinks about the "homosexual agenda." Conservapedia is no authority on LGBT rights activism, or atheism, or any of the topics you've cited it for thus far.Which is simply doubling down on your logical fallacy, that since a source is overall faulty then any information it documents is to be dismissed, which is absurd. Even if the National Inquirer was the only source that best documents an issue it could be cited, and in this case i was only aware of Conservapedia best providing valid concise documentation on the homosexual agenda, corresponding to After the Ball.
Would you accept Stormfront as an authority on Jewish history? Why or why not?And you could indeed cite Stormfront if it provided some of the best sound documentation on Trump being a white supremacists, if that was your argument. There opinion seems to have credibility in your eyes anyway when it serves your purpose.
The killing of an infant, or infanticide? For the last time, we are not talking about infancy, which usually refers to the period from birth up until the first or second year of life. We are talking about much earlier stages of development — zygote, embryo, foetus. If you can't discuss this issue honestly, instead opting to misrepresent those you disagree with as supporting "the killing of infants," then there really is no point in continuing this part of our exchange."Vacuous?" Hardly, for while you must reject our basis for saying so they are far from empty slogans, as if evangelicals saw no substance for them. Do i really need to provide documentation when your argument is against legal definitions of abortion, so that one who supports the killing of infant is not pro-death, and who supports other moral aspects that NT Christians would reject? Want to argue that?
See above.What relevance? When you state "infants do not die in abortion," then is it not relevant that i show that they do, and are called a child, and in recourse to the personhood argument on the basis of rights, is it not relevant when i show that they are given human rights, though murder is not always a charge for killing them, even if based on location (inside or outside the womb?
I will simply reiterate: "... the next step would be for you to draw some principled criteria for personhood and to show that a zygote, embryo, foetus satisfies those criteria. So far, the only criterion you seem to have is that it is a "member of the species homo sapiens." But apart from possessing human DNA, which is true of all "members of the species homo sapiens," it is unclear why merely belonging to a particular species should be considered sufficient for personhood."You can debate that with the governments that at the least make the killing of such to be homicide- the killing of a person, but as far as logic is concerned if it can be murder to kill such outside the womb so it can be while inside, which according to out standard it is.
A slippery slope fallacy, from you perhaps? I notice that you avoided nominating any additional criteria for personhood apart from being "a member of the species homo sapiens." Notably, you never bothered to justify why this alone should be considered sufficient for personhood.Misrepresenting? The context was personhood as relates to the Unborn Victims of Violence Act and you were countering my argument that location (legally) made the killing of a newborn to be murder, (since killing the same inside can be homicide of a newborn), and you denied that it was a single determinative factor. But which means that in such a case other factors are needed for personhood, and thus even an infant that is born may not be a person if lacking such factors though while inside the womb it would be homicide. If in this context for you location itself does not mean such is a person then it is a slippery slope.
Professed, yes. You profess many things. But you establish very little.What?! What nonsense. Scripture is indeed the professed supreme standard for me and typically for evangelicals.
Dr Jen Gunter does an excellent job touching on this issue, emphasising that abortions after 20 weeks are rare and happen because of a combination of maternal health factors and foetal abnormalities incompatible with life.Again, my argument was based on the unborn being a crime victim under the Unborn Victims of Violence Act and "in the US an unborn child is recognized as a legal victim, if s/he is injured or killed during the commission of any of over 60 listed federal crimes of violence.", and that while one can be charged with homicide according to its criteria, and once outside the killing of the same can result in the charge of murder, then location is a single determinative factor.
I can understand why you want to resort to perhaps whether a second old zygote is a person, but the context her is Hillary being a murderer, which is true simply because since she supports the killing of viable infants while in the womb. For this charge there is no need to get into personhood of the most immature stage of life, but that if we are going to deal with legal definition, then logically if killing of an unborn child can be homocide while it is in the womb, and the killing of the same would be murder once it is outside the womb, then i was arguing that from a legal standpoint that those who support such being killing while in the womb should be held as guilty of the same crime as killing the same child outside the womb.
This is partly why I raised the issue of personhood earlier on. If the foetus exhibits a devastating abnormality resulting in the absence of a brain or other vital organs, meaning that it will die prior to or shortly after delivery and will never have sentience, then does it satisfy our criteria for being considered a person entitled to all the rights and protections that personhood entails? By your single criterion, it does, since it possesses the DNA of homo sapiens. But as I pointed out above, you never bothered to justify why that alone is sufficient.
See my discussion with anonymous person for my response to this.I would then doubt that you were ever truly converted according to what Scripture teaches on the subject.
If you had met me many years ago, I'm almost certain that you would have concluded the exact opposite using the same "objective standard."This is not a "no true Scotsman" argument for its appeal is to an objective source and standard on the matter.
I'm sure you are aware that there are various ways of arguing for each of those points that are not contingent on appeals to Scripture. The broader issue I was pointing to, however, was that Scripture alone clearly isn't enough, not even for you. That is why you strive to show that abiding by Scriptural dictates actually confers benefits to society; that it is good that we obey what we read in the Bible. Even if that were true, however, it would not be good because it is expressed in the Bible. "Love thy neighbour" is good, but its goodness doesn't depend on any scriptural origin. Loving thy neighbour would be good even if the instruction came from the Quran or was inscribed anonymously on the Great Wall.It is not a criterion but it is evidential testimony which relates to the "rationality
issue. That a country will benefit by basically honoring parents, authority, the aged, being married or celibate if not, rewarding honest labor with benefits and penalizing the willfully indolent, and yet showing mercy to victims (rather than the idea that not having what others earned means you necessarily are a victim, and have a right to the benefits of those who worked, by the hand of self-exalted saviors), and with capital crimes receiving the death penalty via eyewitness testimony, or possible equivalent (with false witnesses receiving the penalty their lying incurred), etc., versus what we see increasingly fostered today in society an increasingly hostile to Christian faith and morals.
You are again referring here to your interpretation of NT teaching, which is hardly universal, even among your fellow evangelicals, some of whom aspire to end the separation in various ways.Certainly, and separation of powers is a NT teaching (regardless of abertions such as the Inquisitions), but the 1st amendment was not understood as the hyper separatists tend to construe it.
Of course the historical context is important. I never said otherwise. The point I objected to was allowing the founders' religious opinions to overshadow what they clearly established legally and politically. Likewise with any of their opinions on other matters.That is absurd, for proper interpretation is not done in isolation, but requires understanding such things as the historical context (such as what precipitated the 1st amendment: Baptists protesting having to support a state church) and the writers own thoughts on the matter and their application.
I don't interpret it in a manner hostile to religion either. More precisely, I don't interpret it in a manner hostile to religious freedom, but certainly in a way that is inimical to religious privilege. Unfortunately, the two seem to be conflated by many on the religious right who erroneously perceive others as being free (to marry, for instance) as a threat to their freedom.And in which we see do not see them as understanding the 1st amendment as hostile to religion,
Religious reference is less of an issue, IMO, than legislation that is specifically (perhaps even exclusively) religiously motivated. That is the problem.and as if they meant to establish purely secular thought and morality, to the exclusion of all religious reference,
Obviously that isn't an issue, with many politicians happily wearing their religion on their sleeves in an effort to please their voting base.that those in government could not publicly pray as such, and even exhort the nation to do so, and affirm and advocate for religion in general,
You can pray in public schools. You cannot use public schools as a platform to advocate for prayer, however. Again, note the distinction between religious freedom and religious privilege.and read the Bible and pray in public schools,
But it's not "social engineering" when done by the religious right, amirite?Actually they deny rights to their citizens on the basis of unproven secular morality, a faith belief in form of social engineering,
What relevance does this have? Would the founders have all approved of the abolition of slavery? Again, appreciating the historical context in which they lived does not mean that we are obligated to share their religious opinions.and as if the Founders would approve,
I was referring here to your allusion to "the Year of our Lord" reference. As someone who emphasises historical context, I thought you'd appreciate just how common this reference would have been at that time, but clearly I needed to make that point more explicit.That is absurd! These men simply did not evidence that they were given to invoke the name of God casually, as a mere superfluous convention, but as seen so many other places it gave solemn weight to formal documents. The Declaration of Independence and the Articles of Confederation as well as as several state constitutions had clearly and prominently invoked God in their opening or closing.
How is the state forcing churches to act contrary to their faith? In the case of SSM, the fact that others are now legally able to marry members of the same sex in no way forces your church "to act contrary to its faith." Unless by "its faith," you mean forcing everyone else to abide by your church's rules.Yes, as much as an anathema that it is to atheists, its called not prohibiting the free exercise of religion, in this case by the state forcing churches to act contrary to their faith. And either way, the state is imposing a belief upon others.
As I noted at the very beginning of this thread, those who feigned concern for women's safety in the shower room voted overwhelmingly for a guy who bragged about grabbing women by the genitals. Your concerns are severely misplaced.Sure. After what we have seen in the past few years i expect even worse. Under the supreme secular moral sense of the current administration a boy who thinks he is a girl would even be allowed in a girls’ shower room.
I have, and I will continue to. You should consider how programs like absistence-only sex education contribute — such programs being almost universally religiously motivated.There is no need to cherry pick. Do your own research on the incidence of STIs etc. and associated costs.
That's an issue of what the appropriate penalty or course of action should be.A Christian sign-maker need not be the case, but any sign-maker that did not object. And in your example while it would not be analogous to any of the cases i know of, instead of targeting business for a non-necessity then at best the owner that refused should simply have to pay the total cost to have another business do it, or accommodate the customer. No massive fines should be levied for issues of conscience.
As I pointed out in another thread:So that's the best you can do when faced with a clear "I disavow" of a fringe group? But the Obama/ranting Rev. Wright mutual admiration society was blithely excused by liberals.
I remember the outrage from the right when Obama gave Van Jones a position in his administration, with then-Representative Mike Pence saying "[Jones'] extremist views and coarse rhetoric have no place in this administration or the public debate." In a move praised by David Duke and neo-Nazis, Trump appoints a white nationalist known for his extremist views and coarse rhetoric as chief strategist and senior counsellor, and instead of discussing whether his apology will come today or tomorrow, we're talking about unity? Unity!
Being the scurrilous demagogue that he is, he has certainly earned the criticism he is receiving.Look, its increasingly apparent that these "love trumps hate" type are so moved by unconditional hatred for Trump (and "Bible Christians" however different) that they cannot allow themselves objective analysis. And you sound too much like them. I do not think i should continue spending hours (it does) refuting such.
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